Latest Nursing Objective Questions-Read Now. By Exam Objective- Asha D.

Latest/New Nursing MCQ Exam Questions #0133-0140.

Daily Nursing MCQ Exam Questions #0133-140

Question 0133: During the first 24 hours after a major burn injury, which of the following should the nurse anticipate?





Rationale: During the first 24 hours after a major burn injury, there is extensive cellular destruction. Because of this damage, potassium shifts from inside the cells into the bloodstream, leading to hyperkalemia. At the same time, decreased tissue perfusion and reduced oxygen delivery cause accumulation of lactic acid, resulting in metabolic acidosis. These physiological changes are characteristic of the early burn shock phase, which makes hyperkalemia with metabolic acidosis the correct anticipated finding.

Question 0134: Side effect of chloramphenicol is?





Rationale: Chloramphenicol is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can have serious adverse effects. One of the most important side effects is bone marrow suppression, which can lead to aplastic anemia and reduced production of blood cells. Dizziness and headache are less common, and it does not directly cause immunity suppression. Therefore, when monitoring a patient receiving chloramphenicol, it is essential to check complete blood counts regularly to detect early signs of bone marrow toxicity.

Question 0135: Obstructed labour is also known as:





Rationale: Obstructed labour occurs when the baby cannot progress through the birth canal despite strong uterine contractions. This condition is medically referred to as dystocia. Atocia is failure of the uterus to contract after delivery, precipitated labour is unusually rapid labour, and prolonged labour refers to labour lasting longer than normal. Recognizing dystocia early is important to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

Question 0136: What does cystocele mean?





Rationale: Cystocele is a condition in which the urinary bladder protrudes into the anterior wall of the vagina due to weakening of the pelvic floor muscles. It is not an accumulation of fluid, bladder sloughing, or infection. Symptoms may include urinary incontinence, pelvic pressure, and frequent urination, and early recognition is important for appropriate management.

Question 0137: The volume of urine in oliguria is:





Rationale: Oliguria is defined as a **reduced urine output** in adults, usually less than 400 mL per day. A urine output of less than 100 mL is considered anuria, while less than 800 mL is not classified as oliguria. Monitoring urine volume is important for assessing **renal function** and identifying early signs of **kidney injury or dehydration**.

Question 0138: What does zoophobia mean?





Rationale: Zoophobia is the term used for an **inexplicable and persistent fear of animals**. It is different from claustrophobia, which is fear of closed spaces, hydrophobia, which is fear of water, and agoraphobia, which is fear of open spaces. Recognizing zoophobia is important for **psychological assessment** and proper management to reduce anxiety and improve quality of life.

Question 0139: What is the most common and ideal pelvis?





Rationale: The gynecoid pelvis is the most common type of pelvis and is considered the most ideal for childbirth because of its round shape and wide pelvic inlet that facilitates passage of the baby. The android pelvis is heart-shaped and more common in males, platypelloid is flattened, and anthropoid is oval-shaped. Knowing the pelvic type helps in anticipating labor progress and planning for safe delivery.

Question 0140: Which of the following gases is used in sterilization of medical equipment?





Rationale: Ethylene oxide gas is widely used for sterilization of heat-sensitive medical equipment because it can penetrate packaging and destroy all forms of microorganisms, including spores. Methylene oxide gas, methane, and ethane are not used for sterilization purposes. Proper use of ethylene oxide ensures that instruments are safe for patient use without being damaged by high temperatures.

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