🩺 100 Nursing MCQs Quiz – Test Your Knowledge!
Want to sharpen your nursing skills? Here-under are 100 interactive nursing MCQs with answers and quiz scores. Perfect for NCLEX, Nursing Officer, NORCET, CBT, RN, PN, and other nursing exams.
These 100 nursing MCQs with answers may be helpful for students preparing for major nursing exams such as NCLEX-RN, NCLEX-PN, AIIMS NORCET, ESIC Nursing Officer, DHA Prometric and other staff nurse recruitment tests. The questions cover important subjects including Fundamentals of Nursing, Pharmacology, Community Health Nursing, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pediatric Nursing, Obstetric Nursing & other remaining subjects . Practice these nursing objective questions to test your knowledge and improve exam preparation.
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📋 Quiz Details Questions: 100Difficulty: Mixed (Moderate)Subjects Covered: Fundamentals, Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical Nursing + 7 othersBest For: NCLEX, NORCET, Staff Nurse Exams and others
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Q1–25 |
Q26–50 |
Q51–75 |
Q76–100
Question 1: While assessing a resting adult patient during routine vital sign examination, the nurse records the pulse rate. What is the normal pulse rate in a healthy adult?
(a) 40–60 bpm (b) 60–100 bpm (c) 100–120 bpm (d) 120–140 bpm
Question 2: Which is the main hormone responsible for water reabsorption in kidneys?
(a) Aldosterone (b) Insulin (c) Cortisol (d) ADH
Question 3: Balsalazide is primarily used to treat inflammation of which tissue?
(a) Renal mucosa (b) Bowel mucosa (c) Olfactory mucosa (d) Venereal mucosa
Question 5: Which nursing intervention is most effective in reducing separation anxiety in a hospitalised toddler?
(a) Using restraints to prevent the child from leaving the bed (b) Allowing a familiar toy or blanket at the bedside (c) Keeping lights on all night to reduce fear (d) Encouraging parents to leave so the child adjusts quickly
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Question 5: Lymph nodes located in the chest near the lungs and heart are called:
(a) Mediastinal lymph nodes (b) Cervical lymph nodes (c) Popliteal lymph nodes (d) Inguinal lymph nodes
Question 6: A patient has a blood pressure of 180/120 mmHg. This condition is called:
(a) Hypotension (b) Hypertension (c) Prehypertension (d) Normotension
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Question 7: Which medication is commonly used as a bronchodilator in asthma?
(a) Salbutamol (b) Furosemide (c) Digoxin (d) Metoprolol
Question 8: During the assessment stage, a client with schizophrenia leaves his arm in the air after the nurse has taken his blood pressure. His action shows an evidence of:
(a) Somatic delusions (b) Neologisms (c) Waxy flexibility (d) Nihilistic delusions
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Question 9: Which is the first action in a patient with suspected stroke?
(a) Administer aspirin (b) Assess airway, breathing, circulation (c) Give thrombolytic therapy (d) Measure blood sugar
Question 10: How many drops per minute would you administer when the doctor's order states that the client should receive 1000 cc of fluid for 8 hours and the IV set delivers 20 gtts per cc?
(A) 48 gtts (B) 51 gtts (C) 42 gtts (D) 31 gtts
Question 11: Other name of Cidex?
A) Ammonium chloride B) Formaldehyde C) Isopropyl chloride D) Glutaraldehyde
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Question 12: A patient is very restless while receiving IV fluids to treat dehydration. The IV catheter has slipped out of the vein and fluid is delivered to the surrounding tissues under the skin, causing swelling. Which term best describes this occurrence?
A. Infection B. Fluid overload C. Infiltration D. Extravasation
Question 14: A school-going girl is brought to the pediatrics OPD with complaints of uneasiness in unfamiliar surroundings, refusal to visit school and friends’ homes for the past 2 weeks. She is overly compliant, eager to please, and clings to her mother. She also reports abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Depression (b) Separation anxiety disorder (c) School phobia (d) Attention deficit disorder
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Question 14: What is the common site for intramuscular injection in adults?
(a) Deltoid (b) Gluteal medius (c) Vastus lateralis (d) Forearm
Question 15: Neonate/infant came with choking, which is the best method to treat such patients?
A) 5 back slap and 5 chest thrusts B) 4 back slap and 5 chest thrusts C) 3 back slap and 3 chest thrusts D) Heimlich maneuver
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Question 16: Which pathogen causes tuberculosis?
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae (b) Staphylococcus aureus (c) Escherichia coli (d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Question 17: A patient receiving IV morphine complains of itching. The nurse should:
(a) Stop infusion (b) Administer antihistamine (c) Give naloxone (d) Call doctor immediately
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Question 18: Which symptom is earliest in hypoglycemia?
(a) Sweating (b) Polyuria (c) Polydipsia (d) Weight loss
Question 19: A patient with heart failure presents with dyspnea and edema. Priority nursing intervention is:
(a) Monitor ECG (b) Administer diuretics (c) Provide oxygen (d) Encourage ambulation
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Question 20: Which electrolyte imbalance causes Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs?
(a) Hypocalcemia (b) Hyperkalemia (c) Hyponatremia (d) Hypermagnesemia
Question 21: Normal urinary output per day in adults is:
(a) 500–1000 ml (b) 800–2000 ml (c) 2500–3000 ml (d) 300–500 ml
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Question 22: Which nursing action is priority for a patient with suspected meningitis?
(a) Administer antibiotics (b) Check vital signs (c) Give analgesics (d) Provide fluids
Question 23: The main action of loop diuretics like furosemide is:
(a) Retain sodium (b) Excrete sodium and water (c) Lower potassium (d) Lower calcium
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Question 24: Which part of the brain controls breathing and heart rate?
(a) Cerebellum (b) Medulla oblongata (c) Frontal lobe (d) Hippocampus
Question 25: A patient with stroke shows right-sided weakness. This indicates:
(a) Right hemisphere stroke (b) Left hemisphere stroke (c) Cerebellar stroke (d) Brainstem stroke
Question 26: Which is a priority in shock management?
(a) Give antibiotics (b) Maintain airway and oxygen (c) Apply warm compress (d) Encourage fluids orally
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Question 27: The primary nursing action for a patient with hypoglycemia and unconsciousness is:
(a) Give insulin (b) Give oral glucose (c) Administer IV dextrose (d) Monitor BP
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Question 28: A patient with COPD has low oxygen saturation. The nurse should:
(a) Increase oxygen flow cautiously (b) Give high-flow oxygen immediately (c) Place in supine position (d) Restrict fluids
Question 29: Which of the following is a sign of pulmonary edema?
(a) Wheezing (b) Pink frothy sputum (c) Bradycardia (d) Hypoglycemia
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Question 30: Which artery is commonly used to check adult pulse during CPR?
(a) Radial (b) Carotid (c) Brachial (d) Femoral
Question 31: Which PPE is most essential while caring for a TB patient?
(a) Surgical gloves (b) N95 respirator (c) Face shield (d) Apron
Practice Nursing Exam Mock Test-1 [Questions=25]- CBT
Question 32: A nurse finds a patient with IV infiltration. First action?
(a) Slow the infusion (b) Remove IV line (c) Apply cold pack (d) Elevate limb
Question 33. In burns, the rule of nine is used for:
(a) Pain assessment (b) Fluid replacement (c) Medicine (d) Nutrition planning
Practice Nursing Question Mock Test-2 [Question=50]- CBT
Question 34. Normal serum sodium level is:
(a) 125–135 mEq/L (b) 140–150 mEq/L (c) 120–130 mEq/L (d) 135–145 mEq/L
Question 35. First heart sound (S1) is due to closure of:
(a) Aortic & Pulmonic valves (b) Mitral & Tricuspid valves (c) Pulmonic & Mitral valves (d) Aortic & Tricuspid valves
Question 36. Which drug is used to treat anaphylaxis?
(a) Adrenaline (Epinephrine) (b) Atropine (c) Dopamine (d) Hydrocortisone
Practice Nursing Questions Mock Test-3 [Questions-25]
Question 37. Normal potassium level is:
(a) 2–3 mEq/L (b) 3.5–5 mEq/L (c) 6–7 mEq/L (d) 5.5–6.5 mEq/L
Question 38. The most common site for intramuscular (IM) injection in infants is:
(a) Deltoid muscle (b) Gluteus maximus (c) Vastus lateralis (d) Rectus abdominis
Practice Nursing Questions Mock Test-4 [Questions-25]
Question 39. Which diagnostic test is most specific for myocardial infarction (MI)?
(a) CK-MB (b) Troponin I (c) LDH (d) ECG
Question 40. A patient with severe COPD is most likely to retain which gas?
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen
Question 41. In patients with diabetes mellitus, which complication is most closely linked to long-term poor glycemic control?
(a) Pulmonary fibrosis (b) Nephropathy (c) Gastric ulcer (d) Asthma
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Question 42. What is the recommended angle for inserting a subcutaneous insulin injection?
(a) 15° (b) 30° (c) 45–90° (d) 120°
Question 43: The nurse health educates middle-aged women to undergo which of the following test for screening of cervical cancer?
(a) Mantoux test (b) Ultrasonography (c) Fine needle aspiration cytology (d) Pap smear
Question 44. The drug used to prevent seizures in pre-eclampsia is:
(a) Diazepam (b) Phenytoin (c) Magnesium sulfate (d) Lorazepam
Question 45. Which cranial nerve is tested by the whisper test for hearing?
(a) Cranial nerve II (b) Cranial nerve V (c) Cranial nerve VIII (d) Cranial nerve X
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Question 46. The most common cause of diarrhea in hospitalized patients receiving antibiotics is:
(a) Salmonella (b) Clostridium difficile (c) E. coli (d) Giardia lamblia
Question 47. A 58-year-old male with a history of smoking presents with chronic cough producing sputum for more than 3 months in 2 consecutive years. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Bronchial asthma (b) Chronic bronchitis (c) Pulmonary embolism (d) Pneumothorax
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Question 48. A postoperative patient develops shallow breathing and confusion. ABG shows: pH 7.28, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg. What condition does the patient have?
(a) Metabolic acidosis (b) Metabolic alkalosis (c) Respiratory acidosis (d) Respiratory alkalosis
Question 49. A nurse is caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?
(a) Monitoring urine specific gravity (b) Daily weight measurement (c) Restricting fluids (d) Encouraging high salt intake
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Question 50. A patient with acute myocardial infarction complains of severe chest pain. Which drug is the first line of management?
(a) Morphine (b) Digoxin (c) Furosemide (d) Atropine
Question 51. A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
(a) Abruptio placentae (b) Placenta previa (c) Ectopic pregnancy (d) Threatened abortion
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Question 52. A nurse notices that a patient receiving IV blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and back pain within 15 minutes. What should the nurse do first?
(a) Slow down the infusion (b) Stop the transfusion (c) Administer antihistamine (d) Collect urine sample
Question 53: Which condition is characterized by a positive Babinski reflex in an adult?
(a) Lower motor neuron lesion (b) Upper motor neuron lesion (c) Peripheral neuropathy (d) Brain death
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Question 54: Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with peptic ulcer disease?
(a) Paracetamol (b) Ibuprofen (c) Omeprazole (d) Ranitidine
Question 55: Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B12 (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
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Question 56: A 6-year-old child presents with barking cough and stridor. The likely diagnosis is:
(a) Croup (b) Asthma (c) Epiglottitis (d) Bronchiolitis
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Question 57: Which complication is most likely in prolonged immobility?
(a) Hypertension (b) Stroke (c) Deep vein thrombosis (d) Fracture
Question 58: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with anaphylaxis is:
(a) Ineffective airway clearance (b) Risk for infection (c) Acute pain (d) Altered nutrition
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Question 59: Which is the preferred IM injection site for children under 3 years old?
(a) Vastus lateralis (b) Deltoid (c) Ventrogluteal (d) Dorsogluteal
Question 60: A patient receiving furosemide should be monitored for which electrolyte imbalance?
(a) Hypokalemia (b) Hypercalcemia (c) Hypernatremia (d) Hypoglycemia
Question 61: Which sign indicates increased intracranial pressure?
(a) Bradycardia
(b) Tachypnea (c) Hypotension (d) Fever
Question 62: What is the therapeutic level of digoxin?
(a) 0.5–2 ng/mL (b) 5–10 ng/mL (c) 1.5–3.5 ng/mL (d) 2.5–5 ng/mL
Question 63: Which of the following is a sign of meningitis in infants?
(a) Bulging fontanelle (b) Excessive weight gain (c) Skin rash (d) Dry mucous membranes
Question 64: Which cardiac rhythm is a medical emergency requiring immediate defibrillation?
(a) Ventricular fibrillation (b) Atrial flutter (c) Sinus tachycardia (d) Premature atrial contraction
Question 65: The term 'nullipara' refers to a woman who:
(a) Has never delivered a viable baby (b) Delivered once (c) Is currently pregnant (d) Delivered twins
Question 66: What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
(a) Flumazenil (b) Acetylcysteine (c) Naloxone (d) Atropine
Question 67: Which condition presents with moon face, central obesity, and purple striae?
(a) Addison’s disease (b) Hyperthyroidism (c) Cushing’s syndrome (d) Hypoparathyroidism
Question 68: What is the most reliable method to confirm endotracheal tube placement?
(a) Auscultation of chest (b) End-tidal CO₂ monitoring (c) Bilateral chest rise (d) Visual inspection
Question 69: Which lab result indicates renal dysfunction?
(a) Increased serum creatinine (b) Low hemoglobin (c) Decreased ALT (d) Increased lipase
Question 70: Which of the following is a bone disease that causes loss of bone density and increases the risk of fractures?
(a) Osteoporosis (b) Hyperglycemia (c) Hypoglycemia (d) Emphysema
Question 71: The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses all EXCEPT:
(a) Eye opening (b) Deep tendon reflexes (c) Motor response (d) Verbal response
Question 72: A patient with TB should be on which type of precautions?
(a) Standard (b) Airborne (c) Contact (d) Droplet
Question 73: What is the expected effect of administering naloxone?
(a) Improved respiratory rate (b) Sedation (c) Bradycardia (d) Hypotension
Question 74: A patient with COPD is most at risk for which acid-base imbalance?
(a) Respiratory alkalosis (b) Respiratory acidosis (c) Metabolic alkalosis (d) Metabolic acidosis
Question 75: Which one of the following includes the immediate step in resuscitation of the newborn?
(A) Suction of the baby's stomach (B) Clearing the oral and nasal airway (C) Squeezing the chest to remove secretions from the airway (D) Routinely giving sodium bicarbonate
Question 76: Which electrolyte imbalance is most associated with cardiac arrhythmias?
(a) Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Sodium (d) Magnesium
Question 77: What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry post-operatively?
(a) Reduce pain (b) Prevent atelectasis (c) Treat infection (d) Promote coughing
Question 78: Which condition is characterized by the '3 Ps': polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia?
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Diabetes insipidus (c) Hyperthyroidism (d) Hypoglycemia
Question 79: Which of the following is a side effect of furosemide?
(a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypokalemia (c) Hypertension (d) Bradycardia
Question 80: When administering a blood transfusion, the nurse should first:
(a) Warm the blood (b) Start a dextrose IV (c) Verify patient ID and blood type (d) Ask the patient to void
Question 81: A patient with hypoglycemia may present with all EXCEPT:
(a) Sweating (b) Flushed skin (c) Confusion (d) Tremors
Question 82: The antidote for warfarin overdose is:
(a) Vitamin K (b) Protamine sulfate (c) Atropine (d) Naloxone
Question 83: A patient receiving chemotherapy is most at risk for:
(a) Hyperglycemia (b) Hypertension (c) Constipation (d) Infection
Question 84: What should the nurse monitor in a patient taking digoxin?
(a) Apical pulse (b) Respiratory rate (c) Blood glucose (d) Oxygen saturation
Question 85: A positive Chvostek’s sign indicates:
(a) Hypermagnesemia (b) Hypercalcemia (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hyponatremia
Question 86: Glucocorticoid therapy should not be stopped suddenly because:
(a) Sudden discontinuation may result in serious mental disorder (b) Sudden discontinuation may cause allergic reactions and infections (c) Sudden discontinuation may cause severe adrenal insufficiency (d) None of the above
Question 87: Which infection requires contact precautions?
(a) Measles (b) C. difficile (c) Influenza (d) Tuberculosis
Question 88: Which symptom is typical of left-sided heart failure?
(a) Dyspnea (b) Peripheral edema (c) Jugular vein distension (d) Hepatomegaly
Question 89: What is the priority nursing action for a patient having a seizure?
(a) Restrain the patient (b) Insert an oral airway (c) Protect the patient from injury (d) Offer water
Question 90: A patient with anemia may show all EXCEPT:
(a) Pallor (b) Hypertension (c) Fatigue (d) Dyspnea
Question 91: What position is best for a patient in hypovolemic shock?
(a) Supine with legs elevated (b) Trendelenburg (c) High Fowler’s (d) Prone
Question 92: Widal, a serological test, is used to detect the presence of which pathogenic microorganism?
A) E. coli B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Salmonella typhi
Question 93: In which situation is informed consent NOT required?
(a) Surgery (b) Blood transfusion (c) Life-saving emergency (d) Invasive diagnostics
Question 94: Reason to perform naloxone challenge test on a client with opioid abuse?
A) To check reaction of drug B) To check patient interest C) To treat opioid abuse D) To check the level of physical dependence
Question 95: In which type of schizophrenia is the patient's motor behavior greatly disturbed?
(a) Catatonic schizophrenia (b) Residual schizophrenia (c) Hebephrenic schizophrenia (d) Paranoid schizophrenia
Question 96: Term 'Gossypiboma' means?
(a) Tumor in head (b) Tumor in abdomen (c) During surgery, foreign material left inside the body (d) During surgery, accidentally body organ damage inside the body
Question 97: A major risk with IV potassium chloride is:
(a) Constipation (b) Hypertension (c) Cardiac arrest (d) Hypoglycemia
Question 98: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
(a) Hepatitis B (b) MMR (c) Tdap (d) Influenza (inactivated)
Question 99: When is the best time to perform breast self-examination?
(a) During menstruation (b) After menstruation (c) Before menstruation (d) Anytime in the cycle
Question 100: A low HCT and HGB most likely indicate:
(a) Anemia (b) Dehydration (c) Hemophilia (d) Leukemia
This is end of the Quiz. Check your score at top right corner of the screen.
Don’t forget to comment your score below.
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Very good
Thanks
i scored 83 its a good try
Congratulations on scoring 83! That’s an excellent attempt. Stay consistent—you’re on the right track.
I scored 82…
Great, scoring 82 out of 100 means you have enough knowledge to pass your nursing exam. Keep exploring more questions.
I got 54 score
Great job! 🎉 Scoring 54/100 is a good start. Keep practicing — with each quiz, your knowledge and speed will improve. 💪✨ Don’t forget to review the explanations for questions you missed; that’s where the real learning happens!”
i scored 66/100 very educative
🎉 Great effort! Scoring 66/100 is a solid performance.
Glad you found the quiz educative 😊 Keep practicing—every attempt makes you better. All the best for your nursing exams! 💪🩺
I got 74, very important questions for every nursing exams point of view
❤️ Proud of you! 74 means your basics are strong.
These questions really help for every nursing exam.
Don’t stop now—success is near ✨
I score 75
Awesome! Just a few more to hit 100 😎 You’re on the right track!
excellent mscq. For nursing exams preparation
Thank you! 🙌 I’m really happy it’s helping you prepare for your nursing exams. More MCQs coming soon — stay connected!
92
Wow 92/100 👏 That’s an excellent score! You’re really well prepared. Just 8 more to hit 100 😄 Keep practicing!
i score 73. the question are veryhelpful for examination
Congratulations on scoring 73! 🎉 I’m glad you found the questions helpful for your exam preparation—keep practicing and you’ll score even higher next time
I scored 71
Great attempt! 71/100 is a good score. Next target: 80+. Keep practicing with more MCQs.
I scored 81
That’s a strong score! Keep revising, you’ll easily cross 90 next time 🔥
51
Nice effort! 👍 Scoring 51/100 is a good start.
Keep practicing regularly.
I scored 83
That’s a great score—well done! 🎉💪
Scoring 83/100 shows you’re on the right track. Keep practicing and reviewing tricky questions to push even closer to 90+
I scored 79
Well done! 79 is a strong score 👍 With a little more revision, you’re definitely exam-ready. Keep going
My score is 84 thanks
That’s a solid 84! 🔥 Keep practicing—90+ is just around the corner. Let me know if you want more quizzes!