Top Nursing Questions Quiz for Exam practice. Quiz-3.

🩺 Top Nursing Exam Questions for Practice – Quiz-3 (50 MCQs)

Boost your nursing exam preparation with Quiz-3! This set contains 50 challenging MCQs with answers and instant scoring. Perfect for exams like NCLEX-RN, NCLEX-PN, AIIMS NORCET, DHA, HAAD, MOH, Prometric, UK NMC CBT, RN and PN recruitment tests.

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Question 101: A patient with severe sepsis develops oliguria, hypotension, and metabolic acidosis despite fluid resuscitation. Which pathophysiological mechanism is most responsible for renal injury?

Question 102: Which ECG change is most sensitive for hypercalcemia?

Question 103: A patient presents with severe headache, blurred vision, and nausea. Fundoscopy reveals papilledema. Which intervention is most critical to prevent secondary brain injury?

Question 104: Which arterial blood gas pattern is most characteristic of salicylate toxicity in its early phase?

Question 105: A patient on chronic hemodialysis develops sudden muscle cramps, hypotension, and tachycardia. Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely?

Question 106: Which finding differentiates Type B lactic acidosis from Type A?

Question 107: A patient develops acute adrenal crisis. Which combination of lab findings is most indicative?

Question 108: Which clinical feature is most specific for acute angle-closure glaucoma?

Question 109: Which feature differentiates type 2 myocardial infarction from type 1?

Question 110: Which feature differentiates septic shock from cardiogenic shock in early presentation?

Question 111: Which clinical sign is earliest in hypoglycemic encephalopathy?

Question 112: Which lab pattern is most indicative of rhabdomyolysis?

Question 113: A patient develops sudden onset of sharp chest pain relieved by leaning forward. ECG shows diffuse ST elevation. Which condition is most likely?

Question 114: Which lab abnormality is most consistent with SIADH?

Question 115: Which acid–base disturbance is expected in a patient with chronic vomiting?

Question 116: A patient develops sudden shortness of breath, hypotension, and jugular venous distension after central line placement. Which complication should be suspected?

Question 117: Which feature best differentiates cardiogenic pulmonary edema from ARDS?

Question 118: Which electrolyte abnormality is most responsible for tetany in hypoparathyroidism?

Question 119: Which finding is most suggestive of acute mesenteric ischemia?

Question 120: A patient presents with sudden unilateral facial droop, inability to close the eye, and loss of taste on anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Which cranial nerve is affected?

Question 121: A patient with septic shock develops mottled skin, rising lactate, and oliguria despite adequate fluids. Which type of shock physiology is predominant?

Question 122: Which feature differentiates nephrotic syndrome from nephritic syndrome in terms of lab findings?

Question 123: Which ventilator strategy is most protective against barotrauma in severe ARDS?

Question 124: Which laboratory feature is earliest in tumor lysis syndrome?

Question 125: Which acid–base disturbance is classically seen in salicylate poisoning?

Question 126: Which neurological sign is earliest in increased intracranial pressure?

Question 127: Which clinical feature differentiates neurogenic shock from other types of shock?

Question 128: A patient presents with sudden painless vision loss in one eye. Fundoscopy shows a cherry-red spot on macula. Which condition is most likely?

Question 129: Which electrolyte abnormality most commonly causes torsades de pointes?

Question 130: Which lab feature is most specific for acute pancreatitis?

Question 131: Which feature differentiates Type 2 MI from Type 1 MI?

Question 132: Which condition is most likely in a patient with hypotension, tachycardia, muffled heart sounds, and jugular venous distension?

Question 133: Which lab finding is most consistent with SIADH?

Question 134: Which intervention is most critical in preventing acute tubular necrosis in rhabdomyolysis?

Question 135: Which finding differentiates hypovolemic shock from cardiogenic shock in early stages?

Question 136: Which pathophysiological mechanism underlies lactic acidosis in septic shock?

Question 137: Which feature is most specific for malignant hyperthermia during anesthesia?

Question 138: Which lab abnormality is most likely to produce QT prolongation and torsades de pointes?

Question 139: Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with peripheral facial palsy causing inability to close the eye and loss of taste on anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Question 140: Which lab finding is earliest in acute kidney injury?

Question 141: Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to precipitate tetany in hypoparathyroidism?

Question 142: Which lab pattern is characteristic of rhabdomyolysis?

Question 143: Which condition presents with severe abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings and lactic acidosis?

Question 144: Which ABG pattern is most expected in COPD patients with chronic CO2 retention?

Question 145: Which intervention is most critical in preventing pulmonary embolism in a post-operative patient?

Question 146: Which lab abnormality is most specific for primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease)?

Question 147: Which ECG change is earliest in hyperkalemia?

Question 148: Which sign is most sensitive for early shock?

Question 149: Which pathogen is most commonly responsible for ventilator-associated pneumonia?

Question 150: Which feature differentiates septic shock from hypovolemic shock in early presentation?

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🩺 Top Nursing Exam Questions for Practice – Quiz-3 (50 MCQs)

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