Obstetric and Gynaecology MCQ Set-63
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 586:-
The risk factor for the development of thromboembolic phenomenon in a woman with cardiac disease will cardiac disease will be the intake of
(a) Antihypertensive drugs
(b) Antiarrhythmic drugs
(c) Intrauterine devices
(d) Steroidal contraceptives
Show Answer
Ans: (d) Steroidal contraceptives ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Antihypertensive drugs:
Antihypertensive drugs are used to manage high blood pressure and are not directly associated with increasing the risk of thromboembolic events. Some antihypertensives, like beta-blockers or ACE inhibitors, can even help reduce the risk of complications in women with cardiac disease.
(b) Antiarrhythmic drugs:
Antiarrhythmic drugs are prescribed to manage abnormal heart rhythms. While some of these medications might have side effects, they do not significantly increase the risk of thromboembolic events compared to steroidal contraceptives.
(c) Intrauterine devices:
Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are a form of contraception that do not directly contribute to thromboembolic risk. However, there are risks with IUDs like infection or perforation, but thromboembolic phenomena are not a primary concern associated with them.
(d) Steroidal contraceptives:
This is the correct answer. Steroidal contraceptives, especially those containing estrogen, increase the risk of blood clot formation and thromboembolic events, particularly in women with underlying cardiac disease. The estrogen in these contraceptives can promote blood clotting, which raises the risk of deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or stroke.
This rationale explains why steroidal contraceptives, due to their effects on coagulation, are considered a risk factor for thromboembolic complications in women with cardiac disease.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 587:-
A state of miscarriage in which product of conception is retained inside the uterus for a variable period of time is known as….
(a) Missed abortion
(b) Threatened abortion
(c) Inevitable abortion
(d) Complete abortion
Show Answer
Ans: (a) Missed abortion ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Missed abortion:
This is the correct answer. A missed abortion, also known as a missed miscarriage, occurs when the pregnancy is no longer viable, but the products of conception (such as the fetus and placenta) are retained in the uterus for a period of time. There is no immediate expulsion of tissue, and the pregnancy may be diagnosed as nonviable on ultrasound.
(b) Threatened abortion:
In a threatened abortion, vaginal bleeding occurs, but the cervix remains closed and the pregnancy is still viable. The pregnancy may continue without further complications, or it may lead to a miscarriage, but the products of conception are not retained inside the uterus for a prolonged period.
(c) Inevitable abortion:
Inevitable abortion refers to a miscarriage that is in progress, and the cervix begins to dilate, leading to the expulsion of pregnancy tissue. The miscarriage is considered unavoidable, and the products of conception are no longer retained in the uterus.
(d) Complete abortion:
Complete abortion refers to the expulsion of all the products of conception from the uterus. In this case, there is no retention of fetal or placental tissue, and the miscarriage is considered to be fully resolved.
This explanation highlights the distinct nature of missed abortion, where pregnancy tissue remains in the uterus despite the nonviability of the pregnancy.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 588:-
Hyperemesis gravidarum means….
(a) Burning micturition
(b) Severe type of diarrhoea
(c) Severe type of constipation
(d) Severe type of vomiting in pregnancy
Show Answer
Ans: (d) Severe type of vomiting in pregnancy ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Burning micturition:
Burning micturition refers to a painful or burning sensation while urinating, often associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs). It is unrelated to hyperemesis gravidarum, which is a pregnancy-related condition.
(b) Severe type of diarrhoea:
Severe diarrhea is not associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. This condition is related to gastrointestinal issues such as vomiting, not diarrhea.
(c) Severe type of constipation:
Severe constipation may occur during pregnancy due to hormonal changes, but it is not related to hyperemesis gravidarum. Hyperemesis gravidarum is specifically characterized by excessive vomiting, not constipation.
(d) Severe type of vomiting in pregnancy:
This is the correct answer. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss. It is more extreme than the typical morning sickness experienced by many pregnant women.
This explanation clarifies that hyperemesis gravidarum refers to an extreme and debilitating form of vomiting during pregnancy.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 589:-
Which of the following is the major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease?
(a) Abruptio placenta
(b) Post partum haemorrhage
(c) Uterine prolapse
(d) Placenta previa
Show Answer
Ans: (b) Post partum haemorrhage ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Abruptio placenta:
Abruptio placenta refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, and it is unrelated to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
(b) Postpartum hemorrhage:
Postpartum hemorrhage itself does not directly cause PID, but complications following PPH, such as uterine infection (endometritis), can lead to PID. Infection due to retained products of conception or poor hygiene after childbirth could lead to infections in the reproductive tract, but PPH alone does not directly cause PID.
(c) Uterine prolapse:
Uterine prolapse is a condition where the uterus falls into or out of the vaginal canal due to weakened pelvic muscles but is not a direct cause of PID.
(d) Placenta previa:
Placenta previa, where the placenta covers the cervix, can lead to bleeding during pregnancy but does not directly cause PID.
Major Causes of PID:
Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often caused by Chlamydia or Gonorrhea, but can also result from other bacterial infections, often spread sexually.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 590:-
When the placenta lies over the lower uterine segment is known as
(a) Abruptio placenta
(b) Placenta previa
(c) Battledore placenta
(d) Velamentous placenta
Show Answer
Ans: (b) Placenta previa ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Abruptio placenta:
Abruptio placenta refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery, causing bleeding and potential fetal distress. It does not describe the position of the placenta in relation to the lower uterine segment.
(b) Placenta previa:
This is the correct answer. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta is abnormally implanted in the lower part of the uterus, partially or completely covering the cervix. This condition can cause complications, including bleeding during pregnancy and delivery.
(c) Battledore placenta:
Battledore placenta refers to the condition in which the umbilical cord is inserted at the edge of the placenta rather than the center. This is unrelated to the position of the placenta in the uterus.
(d) Velamentous placenta:
Velamentous placenta is a condition where the umbilical cord vessels insert into the membranes rather than directly into the placenta. This can cause complications but is not related to the placenta’s position in the lower uterine segment.
This explanation clarifies that placenta previa is the condition in which the placenta is located over the lower uterine segment, which can lead to delivery complications and requires careful management.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 591:-
The following are the complication can of Rh isoimmunization, except
(a) Hydrops fetalis
(b) Kernicterus
(c) Anemia
(d) Post maturity
Show Answer
Ans: (d) Post maturity ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Hydrops fetalis:
Hydrops fetalis is a severe, life-threatening complication of Rh isoimmunization. It occurs when the fetal blood cells are destroyed by maternal antibodies, leading to severe anemia, heart failure, and fluid accumulation in fetal tissues.
(b) Kernicterus:
Kernicterus is a complication of Rh isoimmunization that results from severe jaundice due to hemolytic anemia. The high levels of bilirubin can cross the blood-brain barrier and damage the brain, leading to permanent neurological damage.
(c) Anemia:
Anemia is a direct result of Rh isoimmunization, as the maternal antibodies attack the fetal red blood cells, leading to a decreased number of red blood cells and thus anemia in the fetus.
(d) Post maturity:
Post maturity (when the pregnancy extends beyond 42 weeks) is not a complication of Rh isoimmunization. It is generally caused by other factors like inaccurate dating of the pregnancy or placental insufficiency but is not directly related to Rh isoimmunization.
This explanation clarifies that post maturity is not associated with Rh isoimmunization, while the other options are recognized complications of the condition.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 592:-
Vulval cancer can be due to
(a) Fungal infection
(b) Bacterial infection
(c) HPV infection
(d) All of the above
Show Answer
Ans: (c) HPV infection ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Fungal infection:
Fungal infections, such as candidiasis, are common but are not a known cause of vulval cancer. These infections may cause irritation or discomfort, but they do not lead to cancer.
(b) Bacterial infection:
Bacterial infections can cause inflammation or other symptoms in the vulva, but they are not considered a direct cause of vulval cancer. Chronic infection or inflammation may increase the risk of cancer, but bacterial infections themselves are not a primary cause.
(c) HPV infection:
This is the correct answer. Human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly high-risk types like HPV 16 and 18, is a well-established cause of vulval cancer. HPV can lead to changes in the cells of the vulva, increasing the risk of developing cancer over time.
(d) All of the above:
This option is incorrect because, while fungal and bacterial infections may cause other vulval issues, they are not direct causes of vulval cancer. HPV infection, on the other hand, is the major known risk factor for vulval cancer.
This explanation emphasizes that HPV infection is a major cause of vulval cancer, while fungal and bacterial infections do not lead to this type of cancer.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 593:-
Infection of genital tract due to complication of delivery is termed as
(a) Puerperal sepsis
(b) Cervical infection
(c) Peritoneal sepsis
(d) Vaginal infection
Show Answer
Ans: (a) Puerperal sepsis ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Puerperal sepsis:
This is the correct answer. Puerperal sepsis refers to a generalized infection of the genital tract that occurs after delivery. It can involve the uterus, cervix, vagina, and other pelvic structures. This infection typically arises due to complications such as prolonged labor, cesarean section, or unsanitary conditions during delivery. Symptoms may include fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling discharge. Puerperal sepsis is a serious condition and requires prompt medical intervention.
(b) Cervical infection:
Cervical infection, while a possible complication of delivery, refers specifically to an infection of the cervix. It is a localized infection, and though it can lead to larger systemic infections like puerperal sepsis, it does not describe the generalized infection of the genital tract after childbirth.
(c) Peritoneal sepsis:
Peritoneal sepsis refers to an infection of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, which can occur due to infections like a ruptured appendix or perforated bowel. It is not specific to the genital tract and is not typically a result of delivery complications.
(d) Vaginal infection:
While vaginal infections can occur during or after childbirth, they refer to a localized infection of the vagina and do not encompass the entire genital tract or the broader complications associated with puerperal sepsis.
This explanation clarifies that puerperal sepsis is the term used for a more widespread genital tract infection that typically results from complications during delivery.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 594:-
The most appropriate position to place the patient if cord prolapse occurs and the fetus is visible
(a) Left lateral position
(b) Knee chest position
(c) Elevated Sims position
(d) Lithotomy position
Show Answer
Ans: (b) Knee chest position ✔
Question:
The most appropriate position to place the patient if cord prolapse occurs and the fetus is visible is…
(a) Left lateral position
(b) Knee-chest position
(c) Elevated Sims position
(d) Lithotomy position
Correct Answer:
(b) Knee-chest position
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Left lateral position:
The left lateral position is commonly used to relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava and improve blood flow, especially during labor. However, it is not the most appropriate position in the case of cord prolapse, as it does not prevent further compression of the umbilical cord.
(b) Knee-chest position:
This is the correct answer. In the case of umbilical cord prolapse, the knee-chest position is the most effective. This position involves the patient kneeling with the chest down and the buttocks elevated. It helps to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord and allows gravity to reduce cord compression. It also provides more space for the fetus, which is critical in this emergency situation.
(c) Elevated Sims position:
The Sims position is used for various medical procedures, but it is not effective in relieving pressure on the umbilical cord during prolapse. It does not provide the same gravity-assisted relief as the knee-chest position.
(d) Lithotomy position:
The lithotomy position (lying on the back with legs in stirrups) is typically used for vaginal delivery, but it does not address the urgency of umbilical cord prolapse. It may increase the risk of further compressing the prolapsed cord, which can compromise fetal oxygenation.
This explanation emphasizes that the knee-chest position is critical for relieving pressure on the umbilical cord in the case of cord prolapse, promoting better outcomes for the fetus.
Obstetric and Gynaecology Nursing MCQ Question 595:-
Preeclampsia is….
(a) Hypertension to the extent of 140/90 or more with proteinuria after 20th week of POG
(b) Preeclampsia complicated with generalized tonic-clonic seizure
(c) Sustained raise in BP to 140/90 or more at least two occasions four or more hours adart
(d) None of the above
Show Answer
Ans: (a) Hypertension to the extent of 140/90 or more with proteinuria after 20th week of POG ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Hypertension to the extent of 140/90 or more with proteinuria after 20th week of POG:
This is the correct definition of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure (hypertension) of 140/90 mmHg or more, coupled with proteinuria (excess protein in the urine), occurring after the 20th week of pregnancy (post-gestational week). It is a serious condition that can affect both the mother and the baby.
(b) Preeclampsia complicated with generalized tonic-clonic seizure:
This option describes eclampsia, which is a more severe form of preeclampsia. Eclampsia is preeclampsia that progresses to include seizures, often generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and can result in significant maternal and fetal risks. Eclampsia is a complication of preeclampsia, not the definition of preeclampsia itself.
(c) Sustained raise in BP to 140/90 or more at least two occasions four or more hours apart:
This option describes the diagnosis of hypertension rather than preeclampsia. While high blood pressure is a key feature of preeclampsia, the presence of proteinuria is also required for the diagnosis. The definition provided here is incomplete, as it lacks the essential factor of proteinuria.
(d) None of the above:
This is incorrect, as option (a) correctly defines preeclampsia.
This explanation highlights that preeclampsia involves both hypertension and proteinuria after the 20th week of pregnancy, distinguishing it from other hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.
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