This is Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing mcq set-3 containing mcq from question 21 to 30 in the series of hundreds Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ which are very important for staff nurse, AIIMS, PGIMER nursing recruitment examinations. MCQ are given below:
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 21:-
The amount of elemental iron in one iron tablet for mother is [AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018]
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question
(a) 60 mg (b) 60 g (c) 50 g (d) 50 mg
Ans: (a) 60 mg ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) 60 mg The typical amount of elemental iron in one iron tablet for pregnant women is 60 mg. This is a standard dose commonly recommended to prevent or treat iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. This is the correct answer.
(b) 60 g 60 grams (g) is an excessively large amount of iron and is far beyond the recommended dosage for iron supplementation. Incorrect.
(c) 50 g 50 grams (g) is also too high for a standard iron supplement. The recommended amount is much lower than this. Incorrect.
(d) 50 mg 50 mg is a common dosage for iron supplements, but 60 mg is typically used to meet the increased iron requirements during pregnancy. Incorrect.
Correct Answer: (a) 60 mg.
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 22:-
Which of the following is a drug of choice for a pregnant mother with chronic hypertension? [AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018]
(a) Methyldopa Methyldopa is the drug of choice for managing chronic hypertension in pregnancy. It is considered safe for both the mother and the fetus and is commonly used to control blood pressure in pregnant women. This is the correct answer.
(b) Atenolol Atenolol is a beta-blocker that is generally avoided in pregnancy due to its potential adverse effects on fetal growth and development. It is not the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Incorrect.
(c) Diazepam Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, muscle spasms, or seizures but is not indicated for treating hypertension. It should be avoided during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Incorrect.
(d) Magnesium Sulphate Magnesium sulfate is used for the prevention and management of seizures in conditions like eclampsia, not for chronic hypertension. Incorrect.
Correct Answer: (a) Methyldopa.
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 23:-
The perception of active fetal movement it felt by the mother during pregnancy is known as [AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018]
(a) Ballottement Ballottement is a clinical sign used to detect the presence of fetal movement or floating fetus during an examination (usually by palpating the uterus), but it is not the term for the mother feeling the fetal movement. Incorrect.
(b) Engagement Engagement refers to the process in which the fetal head descends into the pelvis and is a sign of approaching labor. It does not describe fetal movement. Incorrect.
(c) Quickening Quickening is the term used for the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, typically occurring around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy. This is the correct answer.
(d) Lightning Lightning refers to the sensation experienced when the fetal head descends into the pelvis in preparation for labor, usually in the later stages of pregnancy. It is not related to fetal movement. Incorrect.
Correct Answer: (c) Quickening.
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 24:-
Which of the following is a feature of false labour pain? [AIIMS Bhopal Grade-I 2018]
(a) Not associated with the hardening of the uterus (b) frequency e of contraction increases (c) associated with show (d) progressive dilation of uterus
Ans: (a) Not associated with the hardening of the uterus ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) Not associated with the hardening of the uterus False labor pain, also known as Braxton Hicks contractions, typically does not cause the same level of hardening of the uterus as true labor contractions. This feature helps differentiate false labor from true labor. This is the correct answer.
(b) Frequency of contraction increases In true labor, the frequency and intensity of contractions increase progressively. However, in false labor, the frequency of contractions may remain irregular and does not progressively increase. Incorrect.
(c) Associated with show The “show” refers to the passage of mucus plug from the cervix and is typically associated with true labor, not false labor. False labor does not involve the passage of the mucus plug. Incorrect.
(d) Progressive dilation of uterus Progressive dilation of the cervix is a feature of true labor. In false labor, there is no progressive cervical dilation. Incorrect.
Correct Answer: (a) Not associated with the hardening of the uterus.
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 25:-
The following are the causes of separation of a normally situated placenta, except [AIIMS Raipur Grade-II 2017]
Defective decidua refers to an abnormal or weak uterine lining, which can result in poor placental attachment. This poor attachment can increase the risk of premature placental separation, leading to conditions like placental abruption. This is indeed a valid cause of placental separation.
Now let’s reconsider the other options:
Sudden uterine decompression (a): This can cause placental separation if it occurs suddenly, such as in the case of a ruptured membrane or trauma. It can lead to changes in the uterine shape and pressure, contributing to detachment of the placenta.
Supine hypotension syndrome (c): While this can cause decreased blood flow to the uterus and may affect placental perfusion, it’s not considered a direct cause of placental separation, as it doesn’t inherently cause detachment. This is the right answer in terms of something that does not directly cause placental separation.
Thrombophilias (d): These are blood clotting disorders that can cause clotting in the placental vessels, leading to placental abruption and separation.
Final clarification:
If your book states (b) defective decidua as the answer, it may be emphasizing that a defective decidua (which contributes to poor placental attachment) is one of the known causes of placental separation, especially when compared to other options that don’t directly cause the detachment.
So, the most accurate answer for causes of placental separation in this context would be (b) defective decidua, as it is directly involved in the placental attachment issue.
In the case of a partial mole, the chromosomal abnormality that typically occurs is triploidy, which is a form of polyploidy (an extra set of chromosomes). However, triploidy itself specifically means three sets of chromosomes (69 chromosomes), and it often results from the fertilization of an egg by two sperm cells or an abnormal division during cell replication.
Let’s break it down properly:
Partial mole: Usually involves triploidy (three sets of chromosomes) and results from the fertilization of a normal egg by two sperm cells or an abnormal cell division.
Complete mole: Typically involves haploidy, where an egg is fertilized by one sperm that then duplicates its chromosomes, leading to a set of only paternal chromosomes.
So, for a partial mole, the chromosomal makeup typically leads to triploidy, which is often discussed as a type of polyploidy.
Correct Answer: (a) Triploidy.
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 27:-
The type of pelvis in which the features of heart shaped brim, narrow fore pelvis and sciatic notch with prominent ischial spines and suprapubic angle<90 degree [AIIMS Raipur Grade-II 2017]
(a) Gynecoid pelvis The gynecoid pelvis is the most common and ideal shape for childbirth. It has a round brim, a wide pelvic inlet, and a favorable shape for vaginal delivery. It does not feature a heart-shaped brim or a narrow pelvic inlet. Incorrect.
(b) Android pelvis The android pelvis is characterized by a heart-shaped pelvic brim, a narrow pelvic inlet, a prominent sacrum, a narrow fore pelvis, and a narrower sciatic notch with prominent ischial spines. The suprapubic angle is also typically less than 90 degrees, which makes it less favorable for childbirth. This is the correct answer.
(c) Anthropoid pelvis The anthropoid pelvis is oval-shaped with a long anteroposterior diameter. It typically has a more spacious pelvic inlet, but it does not have the characteristics of a heart-shaped brim or a narrow pelvic inlet with prominent ischial spines. Incorrect.
(d) Platypelloid pelvis The platypelloid pelvis is characterized by a wide and flattened pelvic inlet, with an anteroposterior diameter that is shorter than the transverse diameter. It does not have a heart-shaped brim or narrow fore pelvis. Incorrect.
Correct Answer: (b) Android pelvis.
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 28:-
In the fetal Skull, the bregma is found [AIIMS Raipur Grade-II 2017]
(a) At the junction of the sagittal, coronal and frontal sutures (b) at the junction of the the Lambdoidal and sagittal suture (c) Between the two halves of the frontal bone (d) between the frontal bones and parietal bones
Ans: (a) At the junction of the sagittal, coronal and frontal sutures ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
(a) At the junction of the sagittal, coronal, and frontal sutures The brim of the fetal skull is considered to be at the bregma, which is the point where the sagittal suture meets the coronal and frontal sutures. This point is significant in determining the boundaries and structure of the fetal skull. This is the correct location for the “brim” of the fetal skull. This is the correct answer.
(b) At the junction of the lambdoidal and sagittal suture This point refers to the lambda, located at the junction of the sagittal and lambdoidal sutures. While the lambda is important in cranial anatomy, it is not where the “brim” of the fetal skull is found. Incorrect.
(c) Between the two halves of the frontal bone The region between the two halves of the frontal bone is known as the frontal suture. This is part of the anterior portion of the skull but does not correspond to the location of the “brim” of the fetal skull. Incorrect.
(d) Between the frontal bones and parietal bones This region is where the sagittal suture is located, but it is not the point referred to as the “brim” of the fetal skull. The brim is located at the junction of the sagittal, coronal, and frontal sutures. Incorrect.
Correct Answer: (a) At the junction of the sagittal, coronal, and frontal sutures.
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 29:-
The maternal observation following postpartum hemorrhage are [AIIMS Raipur Grade-II 2017] A Estimate the total volume of blood lost B record pulse and temperature every 15 minute C monitor the central venous pressure D administer IV fluids without interruption to combat the fluid loss
(a) A, B, C (b) B, C, D (c) A,C, D (d) A, B, C, D
Ans: (a) A, B, C ✔
Rationale for Each Option:
A. Estimate the total volume of blood lost Estimating the total volume of blood lost during postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is important because it helps healthcare providers determine the severity of the hemorrhage and decide on the appropriate interventions. While estimating blood loss can be challenging, it is a crucial aspect of management. This is correct.
B. Record pulse and temperature every 15 minutes Monitoring vital signs like pulse and temperature is essential in the immediate postpartum period after PPH. A rising pulse may indicate blood loss, and an abnormal temperature could suggest infection. Recording these signs every 15 minutes is appropriate in a critical situation, especially during early intervention. This is correct.
C. Monitor the central venous pressure Monitoring central venous pressure (CVP) is important, especially in cases of severe PPH, as it helps assess the patient’s circulatory status and fluid balance. It can provide vital information about how well the heart is pumping blood and whether the patient is experiencing hypovolemia. This is correct.
D. Administer IV fluids without interruption to combat the fluid loss Administering IV fluids is essential to manage fluid loss and restore circulatory volume, but it should be done carefully and based on clinical assessment. Giving fluids without interruption may not always be appropriate; fluid administration should be monitored and adjusted as needed. This is not the best practice in every case.
Correct Answer: (a) A, B, C
The combination of estimating blood loss, monitoring vital signs, and CVP is crucial in the management of postpartum hemorrhage. Although IV fluids are critical, their administration should be done judiciously and monitored carefully, which is why (a) A, B, C is the correct answer.
Obstetric and Gynecology Nursing MCQ Question 30:-
A hormone that prevents menstruation and maintenance pregnancy by sustaining the function of the Corpus luteum
(a) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is involved in the development of ovarian follicles and the maturation of eggs in females. However, it does not play a direct role in preventing menstruation or maintaining pregnancy by supporting the corpus luteum. Incorrect.
(b) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) triggers ovulation and helps in the formation of the corpus luteum after the egg is released from the follicle. While LH is involved in the function of the corpus luteum, it does not directly prevent menstruation or maintain pregnancy. Incorrect.
(c) Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) GnRH is responsible for stimulating the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland. It is important in regulating the menstrual cycle but does not directly prevent menstruation or support pregnancy. Incorrect.
(d) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) is the hormone that prevents menstruation during early pregnancy and sustains the function of the corpus luteum. It is produced by the placenta and helps maintain the production of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain the pregnancy and prevent menstruation. This is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: (d) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin hormone.
hCG is the hormone responsible for preventing menstruation and supporting the corpus luteum during early pregnancy, making it the correct answer.
