600+ Automobile Engineering MCQ

These automobile engineering mcq are most important for various exams like SSC JE, State Juniour Engineer Job exams and important for other exams.

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Question 1:- Lateral bending of the frame side members may be caused on account of (a) weight of passengers (b) side wind (c) engine torque (d) braking torque

Question 2:- A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque which is : (a) 80 percent of the maximum engine torque (b) equal to the maximum engine torque (c) 150 per cent of the maximum engine torque (d) none of the above

Question 3:- The inertia of the rotating parts of the clutch should be (a) minimum (b) maximum (c) zero (d) none of the above

Question 4:- The frame may get distorted to a parallelogram shape due to (a) weight of vehicle (b) weight of passengers (c) cornering force (d) wheel impact with road obstacle

Question 5:- The maximum value of axial force at the clutch which a driver can apply while driving, without getting fatigued is approximately (a) 10 N (b) 100 N (c) 500 N (d) 5000 N

Question 6:- The maximum intensity of pressure which the clutch facing can withstand without being damaged is about (a) 10 Pa (b) 10 kPa (c) 100 kPa (d) 1000 kPa

Question 7:- Free pedal play in car clutches is about (a) 3 mm (b) 30 mm (c) 60 mm (d) 100 mm

Question 8:- By using synchronizing device, the two involved adjacent gears have their speeds (a) increased (b) reduced (c) equalized (d) unequalised

Question 9:- In a simple epicyclic gear set, the output member to increase torque in reverse is always (a) ring gear (b) planet carrier (c) sun gear (d) none of the above

Question 10:- In a simple planetary gear set, the output member to increase torque is always the (a) sun gear (b) ring gear (c) planet carrier (d) none of the above

Question 11:- The basic automobile structure consists of the suspension system, axles, wheels and (a) steering (b) brakes (c) frame (d) lights

Question 12:- Compared to framed construction, the frame less construction of automobiles is economical (a) always (b) when produced in small quantities (c) when produced on large scale (d) never

Question 13:- The purpose of gear box in an automobile is to (a) vary speed (b) vary torque (c) provide permanent speed reduction (d) to disconnect the road wheels from the engine when desired

Question 14:- The cooling system of automobile engine most simple when the engine is placed at the (a) front (b) centre (c) rear on the left (d) rear on the right

Question 15:- In case of a four-wheel driven vehicle (a) clutch operating linkage is simplified (b) cooling system is simplified (c) the road adhesion is increased (d) the road adhesion is decreased

Question 16:- The example of a saloon is (a) Premier car (b) Tata truck (c) Leyland bus (d) none of these

Question 17:- The example of a hatchback is (a) Maruti 800 (b) Premier Padmini (c) Ambassador Nova (d) Fiat 1100

Question 18:- The number of points at which the engine-clutch-gear box unit is supported on the chassis frame is (a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four

Question 19:- The clutch is located between the transmission and the (a) engine (b) rear axle (c) propeller shaft (d) different

Question 20:- The most effective section against bending is (a) rectangular bar (b) round bar (c) round hollow tube (d) square hollow section

Question 21:- Weight of the vehicle produces in the side members of the Frame (a) vertical bending (b) horizontal bending (c) torsion (d) all of these

Question 22:- The inner end of axle shaft is splined to the (a) sun gear (b) planet pinion (c) crown wheel (d) differential cage

Question 23:- The adjustment for backlash in a differential is provided between (a) crown wheel and the sun gear (b) sun gear and the planet gear (c) crown wheel and the drive pinion (d) crown wheel and the planet gear

Question 24:- The function of a universal joint is to allow the propeller shaft to (a) change length (b) bend sideways (c) transfer torque at a angle (d) change inclination

Question 25:- Central portion of a propeller shaft is made from a (a) steel shaft (b) gun metal shaft (c) steel tube (d) cast iron rod

Question 26:- Critical whirling speed of a shaft is increased by (a) Increasing its length (b) Decreasing its length (c) Decreasing its diameter (d) None of the. these

Question 27:- The blades in a torque converter have a shape which is (a) square (b) round (c) flat (d) curved

Question 28:- In a torque converter maximum torque multiplication occurs at (a) stop (b) low speed (c) medium speed (d) high speed

Question 29:- The component or me torque converter that redirects the flow of oil to impeller is (a) turbine (b) impeller (c) stator (d) freewheel

Question 30:- The component of the torque converter that drives the oil is the (a) turbine (b) impeller (c) freewheel (d) stator

Question 31:- The parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate against the clutch plate are the (a) release levers (b) thrust bearings (c) struts (d) springs

Question 32:- Cushioning springs in clutch plate are meant to reduce (a) torsional vibrations (b) vehicle speed (c) jerky starts (d) none of the above

Question 33:- The thrust bearing should come into contact with the release levers when the (a) vehicle is stationary (b) vehicle is running very fast (c) vehicle is driven very slow (d) clutch pedal is pressed

Question 34:- In a clutch will coil springs, the wear of the clutch lacing will cause the clamping load to (a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain constant (d) become infinite

Question 35:- Clutch facings arc usually attached to the plate by (a) steel rivets (b) brass rivets (c) aluminium screws (d) steel screws

Question 36:- The purpose of transmission in an automobile is (a) to vary the speed of automobile (b) to vary torque at the road wheels (c) to vary the power of auto mobile (d) none of the above

Question 37:- Increase in torque in a vehicle is obtained by (a) decreasing speed (b) decreasing power (c) decreasing petrol consumption (d) all of the above

Question 38:- Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission are (a) High strength and low cost (b) High strength and less end thrust (c) Low noise level and high strength (d) Low noise level and economy

Question 39:- The central gear of an epicyclic gear set is called a (a) ring gear (b) sun gear (c) planet gear (d) internal gear

Question 40:- The component of the torque converter that allows multiplication of torque is the (a) turbine (b) impeller (c) pump (d) stator

Question 41:- The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a torque converter is about (a) 2.5 (b) 10 (c) 25 (d) 100

Question 42:- A two piece propeller shaft requires (a) one universal joint (b) a center support bearing (c) the shaft to be solid (d) none of the above

Question 43:- Hypoid gear require special lubricant casing are (a) teeth are made of sift material (b) teeth are made of hard material (c) such gear rotate faster (d) sliding action is there between the teeth

Question 44:- The smaller gears inside the differential casing are (a) pinion gears (b) sun gears (c) side gears (d) ring gears

Question 45:- Panhard rod is used to absorb the (a) vertical loading (b) driving thrust (c) side thrust (d) braking torque

Question 46:- When the rear wheels are jacked up and gears are in neutral, turning one rear wheel forward in a rear drive vehicle will cause the other wheel to (a) turn backward (b) turn forward (c) turn in either direction (d)remain stationary

Question 47:- The type of gear axle used on trucks is (a) semi-floating (b) fully-floating (c) three-quarter floating (d) none of these

Question 48:- Salisbury type rear axle casing is also known as (a) banjo type casing (b) unitized carrier casing (c) separate carrier casing (d)none of these

Question 49:- The vehicle ride will be comfortable if (a) unsprung weight is kept minimum (b) sprung weight is kept minimum (c) vehicle weight is kept minimum (d) all of the above.

Question 50:- The function of a stabilizer in an automobile is to decrease the tendency to (a) roll (b) yaw (c) pitch (d) dip

Question 51:- The function of a shackle with a leaf spring is to (a) allow pivoting of spring end (b) allow spring length to change (c) control sidesway (d) control rear torque

Question 52:- Spring eyes in case of cars are usually lined with (a) bronze bushes (b) rubber bushes (c) steel bushes (d) metal bushes

Question 53:- The turning circle for a car is approximately (a) 1 metre (b) 2 metres (c) 10 metres (d) 30 meters

Question 54:- Cornering force divided by slip angle is called (a) self-righting torque (b) cornering power (c) pneumatic trail (d) castor trail

Question 55:- The side force sustained by the wheel during cornering divided by the slip angle is called (a) cornering force (b) camber force (c) cornering power (d) none of the above

Question 56:- Most popular manual steering gear for cars today is (a) rack and pinion type (b) worm and wheel type (c) cam and roller type (d) worm and nut type

Question 57:- The steering ratio for manual steering of cars is approximately (a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 50 (d) 100

Question 58:- Another name for the steering link rod is (a) track rod (b) tie rod (c) drag link (d) pitman

Question 59:- One purpose of a recirculating ball type steering gear is to reduce the (a) operating friction (b) operating cost (c) toe-out during turns (d) number of pats

Question 60:- In the recirculating ball type steering gear, the ball travel between the ball nut and the (a) gear track (b) worm wheel (c) steering wheel shaft (d) worm shaft

Question 61:- The type of steering gear used in a Maruti 800 car is (a) gear rack (b) worm and roller (c) worm and wheel (d) none of the above

Question 62:- On car having rack and pinion steering, the gear rack is attached to (a) relay rod (b) pitman axis (c) cross shaft (d) tie rod

Question 63:- The type of wheel which cannot be used with a tubeless tyre is (a) disc wheel (b) wire wheel (c) light alloy wheel (d) composite wheel

Question 64:- The type of wheels preferred in sports cars are (a) disc wheel (b) wire wheel (c) magnesium alloy wheel (d) aluminium alloy wheel

Question 65:- In case of a wire wheel the vehicle weight is supported by the wires in (a) tension (b) compression (c) bending (d) shear

Question 66:- The term ‘ply rating’ with reference to a tyre refers to the (a) actual number of plies (b) recommended inflation pressure (c) aspect ratio (d) rated strength

Question 67:- The purpose of tyre sipes is to (a) increase tread life (b) decrease noise level (c) provide softer ride (d) increase traction

Question 68:- Tread distortion is least on (a) radial ply tyres (b) cross ply tyres (c) cross ply belted tyres (d) none of these

Question 69:- Out of round brake drums cause the tyres to wear (a) on the inside (b) on the outside (c) in single spots (d) uniformly all round

Question 70:- Heel’ and toe wear’ in tyres is caused by (a) excessive acceleration and braking (b) overinflation (c) underinflation (d) excessive camber

Question 71:- The permissible mixing of cross-ply and radial-ply automobile tyres allows (a) cross-ply tyres on left wheels (b) cross-ply tyres on right wheels (c) cross-ply tyres on front wheels (d) cross-ply tyres on rear wheels

Question 72:- The brake efficiency of a new vehicle is about (a) 30 per cent (b) 50 per cent (c) 80 per cent (d) 100 per cent

Question 73:- Brake fade is (a) loss of pedal (b) loss of coefficient of friction (c) loss of hydraulic fluid (d) none of these

Question 74:- Fading of brakes occurs (a) at high speed (b) at low speed (c) during continuous application (d) when brake lining is worn

Question 75:- Due to weight transfer, the ratio of braking effect at the front and at the rear wheels should be (a) 50% at front and 50% at rear (b) 60% at front and 40% at rear (c) 40% at front and 60% at rear (d) none of the above

Question 76:- The brakes employed in cars are usually operated (a) mechanically (b) hydraulically (c) by means of engine vacuum (d) by compressed air

Question 77:- Component of the wheel cylinder which seals the brake fluid is (a) piston (b) spring (c) dust cover (d) cup

Question 78:- During braking the push rod directly operates (a) piston (b) primary seal (c) residual pressure valve (d) compensating port

Question 79:- In drum type brakes the fluid on releasing, returns to the master cylinder due to the action of the piston spring and (a) by-pass port (b) wheel-cylinder spring (c) compensating port (d) brake shoe retractor spring

Question 80:- Intake port in the master cylinder allows brake fluid to flow (a) into the reservoir (A) through the fluid check valve (c) around the recessed section of piston (d) all of the above

Question 81:- If proportioning valve is not working (a) front brakes may lock (b) rear brakes may lock (c) from brakes may drag (d) rear brakes may drag

Question 82:- Most anti-skid devices are employed on (a) rear brakes (b) front brakes (c) secondary’ brakes (d) parking brakes

Question 83:- In disc brakes, pad-to-disc adjustment is provided by (a) caliper (b) piston (c) piston seal (d) bleed screw

Question 84:- In Maruti car the brakes used are (al) disc brakes only (b) drum brakes only (c) disc on front and drum on rear (d) drum on front and disc on rear.

Question 85:- Electric brakes are commonly used on (a) two wheelers (b) cars (c) trucks (d) trailers

Question 86:- On suspended vacuum brakes, there is vacuum on both sides of the piston during (a) brake application (b) brake release (c) part application of brakes (d) all of these

Question 87:- Air brakes are mostly used in case of (a) cars (b) jeeps (c) trucks (d) three-wheelers

Question 88:- The hand brake usually operates on (a) rear wheels (b) front wheels (c) right wheels (d) left wheels

Question 89:- Brake lining consists mainly of (a) asbestos (b) copper (c) cast iron (d) aluminium

Question 90:- The maximum disc runout allowed on the vehicle is generally (a) 1 mm (b) 0.5 mm (c) 0.1 mm (d) 0.01 mm

Question 91:- The carbon-ceramic brakes are standard with effect from 2008, on all (a) Farraris (b) Porsches (c) Audis (d) BWS

Question 92:- For identification, the colour of tail lights in a car is (a) white (B) red (c) green (d) yellow

Question 93:- The two quantities used for specifying an electrical wire are (a) the colour and length (b) the length and diameter (c) the diameter and number of strands (d) the colour and diameter

Question 94:- The type of reflector used for automobile head lamp is (a) spherical (b) parabolic (c) hyperbolic (d) none of these

Question 95:- In a head lamp the metal shield is placed below the (a) dipper beam (b) main beam (c) both the beams (d) none of these

Question 96:- For aiming the headlights, the distance between the headlights and the screen should be (a) 1.5m (b) 4.6 m (c) 7.6m (d) 10.6 m

Question 97:- In modern vehicles, the headlight dimming switch is mounted on the (a) steering column (b) dash board (c) flour board (d) side panel.

Question 98:- Trafficators are light signals used for (a) heavy traffic (h) light traffic (c) reversing the car in traffic (d) indicating the direction in which turning

Question 99:- The most commonly used car heater is the (a) hot air type (b) hot water type (c) petrol type (d) diesel type

Question 100:- The object of air conditioning a car is to control therein the (a) temperature and pressure (b) pressure and humidity (c) humidity and temperature (d) none of these

Question 101:- Best spanner for automobile work is the (a) open-ended type (h) combination type (c) ring type (d) socket type

Question 102:- For tightening cylinder head bolls we should prefer to use (a) open-ended spanner (b) torque wrench (c) ring spanner (d) adjustable spanner

Question 103:- For speeding up the tightening work we have to use (a) long handle (b) ratchet handle (c) braced handle (d) extension bar

Question 104:- Before drilling a hole, its center should be marked with a (a) punch (b) chisel (c) drill bit (d) none of the above

Question 105:- For measuring clearance between two flat surfaces the tool used is (a) steel rule (b) caliper (c) micrometer (d) feeler gauge

Question 106:- The tool employed to measure the shaft run out is the (a) feeler gauge (b) dial gauge (c) micrometer (d) caliper

Question 107:- The spray of water from a car washer is at a pressure of about (a) 3 MPa (b) 30 MPa (c) 3 kPa (d) 30 kPa

Question 108:- A chassis dynamometer measures the vehicle power at the (a) engine crankshaft (b) transmission shaft (c) wheels (d) none of these

Question 109:- Car clutch is usually operated (a) mechanically (b) hydraulically (c) pneumatically (d) electrically

Question 110:- The clutch used in cars in usually (a) Multiple disc type (b) Single disc type (c) Centrifugal type (d) None of these

Question 111:- Number of forward gear box speeds in Indian cars is usually (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7

Question 112:- Permanent speed reduction ratio of final drive of cars is about (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12

Question 113:- Independent suspension on all four wheels is used in 24 (a) Alto (b) i 10 (c) A.C. sports car (d) Morgan plus 8

Question 114:- Dion axle is employed in (a) Alto K10 (b) Alfa Romeo Alfetta (c) Austin Rover VandanPlas (d) Audi 100

Question 115:- Rack and pinion type steering gear is used in (a) Premier car (b) Mahindra Jeep (c) Standard 20 Van (d) Maruti Estilo car

Question 116:- The first Indian car to use disc brakes was (a) Maruti 800 (b) maruti 1000 (c) Ambassador Nova (d) Tata Sierra

Question 117:- Disc brakes on all four wheels is used in (a) Maruti Estilo (b) Ambassador Nova (c) Chrysler 180 (d) Rolls-Royce Phantom VI

Question 118:- Diagonally-split hydraulic brakes are used in (a) Maruti 800 (b) Audi 100 (c) Volkswagen Passat (d) All of these

Question 119:- Maximum combustion pressure in a car petrol engine is about (a) 6 kpa (b) 60 kPa (c) 6 MPa (d) 60 MPa

Question 120:- Doubling the cylinder diameter of an engine could give power output, which is ‘x’ times the original value, where ‘x’ is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 8

Question 121:- In a six-cylinder engine, the power impulse occurs after ‘x’ degrees of crankshaft rotation, where ‘x’ is (a) 90 (b) 120 (c) 240 (d) 360

Question 122:- Firing order of a 6-eylinder in-line engine is usually (a) 1-5-3-6-2-4 (b) 1-6-3-5-2-4 (c) 1-4-3-2-6-5 (d) 1-3-6-2-4-5

Question 123:- The cylinder bores of aluminum alloy cylinder blocks arc usually plated with (a) steel (b) brass (c) chromium (d) molybdenum

Question 124:- The angle between the cylinder axes and the crankshaft centre line in an engine is (a) 60 (b) 90 (c) 120 (d) 180

Question 125:- Most difficult gasket sealing problem occurs at the (a) head (b) oil pan (c) liming cover (d) intake manifold

Question 126:- Each time a joint is assembled, it is recommended to replace (a) cork gaskets (b) asbestos gaskets (c) rubber gaskets (d) all gaskets

Question 127:- Flat bottomed inlet manifolds are commonly used in car engine to (a) allow space for two runner levels (b) increase fuel evaporation in the manifold (c) provide uniform air-fuel mixture to various cylinders (d) maximise the cross-sectional area for the given wall surface area of the manifold

Question 128:- The oil pan in an engine may be made of (a) steel or aluminum (b) steel or cast iron (c) cast iron or brass (d) cast iron or zinc

Question 129:- A dish in the piston head is employed to (a) decrease piston weight (b) provide valve clearance (c) control compression ratio (d) adjust piston displacement

Question 130:- The largest diameter of a cam ground piston is (a) along piston pin axis (b) at the piston land (c) at 45° to the piston pin axis (d) al 90° to the piston pin axis

Question 131:- The piston-skirt clearance at room temperature is about (a) 0.004 mm (b) 0.04 mm (c) 0.4 mm (d) 1 mm

Question 132:- Piston pins on some engines are offset to the (a) right side (b) left side (c) major thrust side (d) minor thrust side

Question 133:- The purpose of piston rings is to control (a) combustion pressures (b) cylinder wall lubrication (c) oil consumption (d) all of the above

Question 134:- In autothermic pistons steel inserts arc used to (a) reduce piston expansion (b) control the direction of expansion (c) reduce piston weight (d) make the piston stronger

Question 135:- The minimum number of compression rings in an automotive engine is (a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four

Question 136:- Compression rings are generally made of (a) low carbon steel (b) high carbon steel (c) aluminium (d) chromium

Question 137:- The uppermost ring on a piston is usually plated with (a) steel (b) cast iron (c) aluminium (d) chromium

Question 138:- On the compression stroke the rings are pressed against (a) top of groove (b) bottom of groove (c) inner side of groove (d) all of these

Question 139:- The primary purpose of a ring expander is to (a) make up for cylinder wear (b) increase static ring tension (c) decrease dynamic ring tension (d) reduce ring vibrations

Question 140:- Connecting rod connects the crankshaft and the (a) cylinder head (b) cylinder block (c) piston (d) camshaft

Question 141:- The piston pins in the modern automobile engines are usually (a) semi-floating (b) fully-floating (c) three-quarter floating (d) fixed to both piston and the connecting rod end

Question 142:- The counterweights on a crankshaft are located opposite the (a) main bearings (b) big-end bearings (c) small-end bearings (d) vibration damper

Question 143:- On the front end of a crankshaft is mounted (a) timing gear (b) vibration damper (c) fan pulley (d) all of these

Question 144:- On the rear end of a crankshaft mounted (a) flywheel (b) counterweight| (c) vibration damper (d) timing sprocket

Question 145:- The ratio of main journal diameter and the cylinder bore in a ear engine is approximately (a) 0.1 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.75

Question 146:- In a six-cylinder car engine the angle between the successive crank throw is (a) 60 (b) 90 (c) 120 (d) 180

Question 147:- The vibration damper on a crankshaft reduces the (a) longitudinal vibrations (b) transverse vibrations (c) torsional vibrations (d) all of these

Question 148:- The number of main bearings in a 4-cylinder car engine is usually (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

Question 149:- The most commonly used valve in an automobile engine is (a) poppet valve (b) sleeve valve (c) rotary valve (d) none of these

Question 150:- Exhaust valve face angle is generally (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75°

Question 151:- The material used for inlet valve is usually (a) silico-chrome steel (b) austinic steel (c) precipitation-hardening steel (d) nimonic alloy

Question 152:- Most commonly used valve-actuating mechanism in modem cars is (a) side valve mechanism (b) overhead valve mechanism (c) overhead inlet and side exhaust valve mechanism (d) none of these

Question 153:- The engine valves are closed by (a) crankshaft (b) camshaft (c) timing device (d) valve spring

Question 154:- The camshaft controls (a) valve opening (b) valve closing (c) valve liming (d) all of these

Question 155:- How many times in a minute does each valve on a four stroke engine running at 2000 RPM open and close? (a) 1000 (b) 2000 (c) 4000 (d) 6000

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Question 156:- The camshaft drive which does not require lubrication is (a) chain drive (b) gear drive (c) toothed rubber belt (d) none of these

Question 157:- The push rod is located between the (a) valve and valve spring (b) valve and rocker arm (c) tappet and rocker arm (d) none of these

Question 158:- A says that rocker arms reverse reciprocating motion while B says that rocker arms convert rotating motion to reciprocating motion. Who is right? (a) A (b) B (c) Both are right (d) Both arc wrong

Question 159:- A asserts that intake valves are cooled while they are open. However. B states that exhaust valves are heated while they are open. Who is right? (a) A (b) B (c) Both are right (d) Both are wrong

Question 160:- The exhaust valve usually starts opening (a) at BDC (b) at TDC (c) before BDC (d) before TDC

Question 161:- Valve overlap occurs between (a) intake and compression strokes (b) compression and power strokes (c) power and exhaust strokes (d) exhaust and intake strokes.

Question 162:- The engine requires overhauling in case of (a) poor compression (b) excessive consumption of lubricating oil (c) mechanical failure (d) all of the above

Question 163:- The carbon from the cylinder head is removed with (a) water (b) caustic soda (c) scraper (d) soap

Question 164:- The warpage of cylinder head is checked with a (a) metal rule (b) vernier caliper (c) micrometer (d) dial gauge

Question 165:- The cylinder head nuts should be tightened to a torque of about (a) 15 Nm (b) 150 Nm (c) 50 Nm (d) 1500 Nm

Question 166:- Aluminized valves are never ground they have to be replaced because (a) aluminium is a costly material (b) aluminium surface is difficult to he ground (c) grinding such valves will make them corrosion prone (d) none of these.

Question 167:- The valves have to be replaced if the metal to be removed lor smoothening their end surfaces is more than (a) 0.05 mm (b) 0.5 mm (c) 1.5 mm (d) 5 mm

Question 168:- The width of the valve seat should not be kept more than (a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.5 mm (c) 1.2 mm (d) 5 mm

Question 169:- While lapping a valve, the lapping compound is applied to its (a) face (b) stem (c) guide (d) tip

Question 170:- The stem clearance in the valve guide is checked by means of a (a) metal rule (b) vernier caliper (c) micrometer (d) dial gauge

Question 171:- Maximum permissible bearing clearance for the camshaft is usually (a) 0.05 mm (b) 0.15 mm (c) 0.5 mm (d) 1.5 mm

Question 172:- The bearing clearance is never measured with a (a) vernier calliper (b) micrometer (c) feeler gauge (d) plastigage

Question 173:- Maximum permissible ovality in a cylinder is usually (a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.1 mm (c) 0.5 mm (d) 1.0 mm

Question 174:- The cylinder bore oversize for reboring is calculated on the basis of (a) minimum ovality in any cylinder (b) maximum ovality in any cylinder (c) average value of ovality in the cylinder (d) size of the piston available

Question 175:- For checking the alignment of the crankshaft, the best method is to place it (a) on V-blocks (b) on its ends (c) on lathe centres (d) on a plane smooth table

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Question 176:- The crankshaft bending should not generally exceed (a) 0.008 mm (b) 0.08 mm (c) 0.8 mm (d) 8 mm

Question 177:- Percentage of fuel energy lost to the cylinder walls in an automobile engine is approximately (a) 1 per cent (b) 10 per cent (c) 30 per cent (d) 80 per cent

Question 178:- Sequence of coolant circulation is: (a) pump-radiator-block-head (b) pump-block-head-radiator (c) pump-block-radiator-head (d) pump-radiator-head-block

Question 179:- On leaving the engine the coolant goes to (a) pump inlet (b) header tank (c) collector tank (d) none of the above

Question 180:- The radiator core is made of (a) brass (b) steel (c) cast iron (d) plastic

Question 181:- A pressure cap contains a (a) pressure valve (b) thermostat valve (c) blow-off-valve (d) pressure and vacuum valve

Question 182:- The purpose of the thermostat is to keep the engine (a) hot (b) cool (c) at desire temperature (d) none of the above

Question 183:- The thermostat valve starts to open at about (a) 90°C (b) 80°C (c) 50°C (d) 20°C

Question 184:- Coolant pumps are of (a) vane type (b) reciprocating type (c) centrifugal type (d) all of the above type

Question 185:- The purpose of the fan is to (a) increase flow of coolant (b) draw air through the radiator (c) cool the engine by blowing air over it (d) provide drive to the coolant pump

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Question 186:- Cooling fans are driven by (a) electricity and belts (b) gears and belts (c) chains and gears (d) all of the above

Question 187:- The fan in the Maruti car is controlled (a) electrically (b) mechanically (c) hydraulically (d) magnetically

Question 188:- Engine overheating may result due to (a) radiator pressure cap stuck closer (b) thermostat stuck open (c) broken fan belt (d) excess coolant in the system

Question 189:- The friction that occurs between the layers of oil in an oil film is called (a) viscous friction (b) solid friction (c) boundary friction (d) greasy friction

Question 190:- The primary function of lubrication is to (a) provide cooling effect (b) provide sealing effect (c) provide cleaning action (d) reduce wear

Question 191:- The most important characteristic of a lubricating oil is its (a) viscousity (b) physical stability (c) chemical stability (d) resistance against corrosion

Question 192:- Most commonly used lubricants in automobiles are the (a) animal oils (b) mineral oils (c) vegetable oils (d) synthetic oils

Question 193:- The most common lubrication system in automobile is the (a) petroit system (b) splash system (c) pressure system (d) none of the above

Question 194:- The approximate oil pressure in the lubrication system in modern cars is (a) 45-50 kPa (b) 200-400 kPa (c) 1-5 MPa (d) more than 10 MPa

Question 195:- Maximum oil pressure in the lubrication system is controlled by (a) oil filter (b) pump rotor (c) pressure relief valve (d) pressure switch

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Question 196:- The lubrication system in all modern cars has (a) gear type pump (b) rotor type pump (c) oil filter (d) oil cooler

Question 197:- From the oil pump the oil directly to (a) oil gallery (b) oil strainer (c) oil filter (d) main bearings

Question 198:- End play of gears of an oil pump may be checked by using (a) inside caliper (b) outside caliper (c) vernier caliper and feeler gauge (d) straight edge and feeler gauge

Question 199:- The best hydrocarbons from detonation viewpoint are (a) paraffins (b) olefins (c) naphthenes (d) aromatics

Question 200:- The process of changing the molecular structure of the straight-run gasolines is called (a) cracking (b) reforming (c) refining (d) none of the above

Question 201:- The process in which hydrocarbons are decomposed into smaller hydrocarbons is called (a) cracking (b) reforming (c) polymerisation (d) alkylation

Question 202:- The calorific value of gasoline is about (a) 45 J/kg (b) 45 kJ/kg (c) 45 MJ/kg (d) 45 GJ/kg

Question 203:- The calorific value of alcohol is (a) less than that of gasoline (b) equals to that of gasoline (c) more than that of gasoline (d) depends upon type of the engine where used

Question 204:- The octane number of iso-octane is (a) 0 (b) 10 (c) 80 (d) 100

Question 205:- One effect of detonation is (a) delay in ignition (b) interruption in lubrication (c) loss of power (d) deterioration in the quality of air-fuel mixture

Question 206:- An effective method of prevention of detonation is the (a) cooling of the charge (b) heating of the charge (c) locating spark plug at one end of the combustion chamber (d) reducing the quantity of aromatics in the fuel used.

Question 207:- Octane number of Indian lead-free petrol is (a) less than octane number of leaded petrol (b) equal to octane number of leaded petrol (c) greater than octane number of leaded petrol (d) not specified

Question 208:- The use of tetraethyl lead in gasolines is being gradually discontinued because (a) it is costly (b) it has bad odour (c) it blocks the catalytic converter (d) it decreases the engine efficiency

Question 209:- The function of quench area in a wedge-shaped combustion chamber is to (a) improve the compression ratio (b) cool the end gases (c) decrease the volume of combustion chamber (d) increase the area of combustion chamber

Question 210:- An indication of ignition quality of a diesel fuel is given by (a) detonation (b) octane number (c) preignition (d) cetane number

Question 211:- The most widely used fuel supply system for car engines is the (a) gravity system (b) pressure system (c) vacuum system (d) pump system

Question 212:- The drive for the mechanical fuel pump is taken from the (a) crankshaft (b) camshaft (c) distributor shaft (d) any of these

Question 213:- Small holes in the pump body provide a vent for (a) air (b) water (c) fuel (d) oil

Question 214:- fuel pump outlet pressure should be approximately (a) 3 kPa (b) 30 kPa (c) 100 kPa (d) 300 kPa

Question 215:- Lean air-fuel mixture is required for (a) starting (b) idling (c) cruising (d) acceleration

Question 216:- The carburettor provides the correct quality of air-fuel mixture during (a) starting (b) idling (c) acceleration (d) all conditions

Question 217:- The venturi in the carburettor causes the (a) increase or air velocity (b) decrease of air velocity (c) decrease of fuel flow (d) decrease of manifold vacuum

Question 218:- The throttle valve controls the supply of (a) air only (b) fuel only (c) air fuel mixture (d) none of these

Question 219:- A single jet carburettor tends to supply richer mixture during (a) starling (b) idling (c) low speed operation (d) high speed operation

Question 220:- The choke is usually closed when the engine is (a) hot (b) cold (c) idling (d) accelerating

Question 221:- When the choke is applied the fuel come out from the (a) main jet (b) idle port (c) transfer port (d) progression hole

Question 222:- In a single jet carburettor the mixture tends to become richer (a) during winter (b) at low altitudes (c) at high altitudes (d) during idling

Question 223:- At very low temperatures the ice tends to form in the carburettor in the (a) air cleaner (b) venturi (c) idle jet (d) float

Question 224:- The example of a ‘variable venturi’ type carburettor is the (a) Carter carburettor (b) SolexCarburettor (c) S.U. Carburettor (d) Zenith carburettor

Question 225:- Ami-dieseling device is incorporated in the carburettor used in the (a) Ambassador car (b) Premier Padmini car (c) maruti 800 car (d) All of these

Question 226:- The carburettors in which air-fuel mixture is controlled automatically by a computer are called the (a) downdraft carburettors (b) updraft carburettors (c) Feedback carburettors (d) automatic carburettors

Question 227:- The most accurate petrol injection system is the (a) direct injection (b) port injection (c) manifold injection (d) throttle body injection

Question 228:- The cheapest yet reasonably precise gasoline injection system is the (a) direct injection (b) port injection (c) sequential injection (d) throttle body injection

Question 229:- The amount of fuel delivered by the injector depends upon the (a) size of injector nozzle (b) pressure pushing fuel through the injector (c) length of time the injector is open (d) all the above factors.

Question 230:- The compression ratio in an automotive diesel engine is usually (a) 7:1 (b) 10:1 (c) 15:1 (d) 22:1

Question 231:- The cranking compression pressure in a diesel engine is about (a) 1000 kPa (b) 2000 kPa (c) 3000 kPa (d) 10000 kPa

Question 232:- The cylinder temperature after compression in a diesel engine is approximately (a) 300°C (b) 450°C (c) 800°C (d) 1000°C

Question 233:- The ignition temperature of diesel fuel is about (a) 300°C (b) 400°C (c) 600°C (d) 800°C

Question 234:- The fuel feed pump in a diesel engine is mounted (a) on the fuel tank (b) on the injection pump (c) on the injector (d) inside the fuel tank

Question 235:- In some diesel engines injection pressures can reach as high as (a) 100 MPa (b) 200 MPa (c) 300 Mpa (d) 400 MPa

Question 236:- The fuel injection timing in a distributor type pump is controlled by (a) changing plunger stoke (b) changing speed of rotor (c) rotating the cam ring (d) changing the number of cams on the ring

Question 237:- The opening pressure of hole type nozzles varies from (a) 7-15 MPa (b) 11-22 MPa (c) 17-34 Mpa (d) 35-45 Mpa

Question 238:- The opening pressure of pintle type nozzles varies from (a) 7-15 MPa (b) 11-22 MPa (c) 17-34 Mpa (d) 35-45 Mpa

Question 239:- Secondary filter in a diesel engine is (a) a must (b) installed between the fuel tank and feed pump (c) optional (d) not capable of removing water from the fuel

Question 240:- A glow plug is (a) a decompression device (b) installed in the inlet manifold (c) screwed into the combustion chamber (d) used to plug the leakage of fuel

Question 241:- It is common for the diesel engine to emit excessive smoke during (a) starting (b) acceleration (c) deceleration (d) idling

Question 242:- Aneroid is a (a) cold starting device (b) emission control device (c) decompression device (d) device for timing injection

Question 243:- From the engine indicator diagram, we obtain (a) I.M.E.P. (b) B.M.E.P. (c) mechanical efficiency (d) relative efficiency

Question 244:- The units of spring scale for the engine indicator are (a) kW (b) N (c) Nm (d) N/m^2/m

Question 245:- Engine indicators not having any inertia effects are (a) mechanical type (b) electrical type (c) optical type (d) none of these

Question 246:- The most accurate dynamometer is the (a) prony brake type (b) hydraulic type (c) swinging field type (d) eddy current type

Question 247:- Most commonly used dynamometer on account of its simplicity of construction is the (a) prony brake type (b) hydraulic type (c) swinging field type (d) eddy current type

Question 248:- Brake thermal efficiency for S.I. engines usually varies between (a) 25% and 30% (b) 30% and 60% (c) 60% and 80% (d) More than 80%

Question 249:- The three components of primary ignition circuit are (a) the contact breaker, condenser and distributor cup (b) the contact breaker, ignition coil and spark plug (c) the contact breaker, ignition switch unit condenser (d) the contact breaker, ignition switch and rotor

Question 250:- The components of secondary ignition circuit include the secondary winding of ignition coil, distributor rotor, distributor cap and (a) condenser (b) spark plug (c) ignition switch (d) distributor drive gear

Question 251:- The primary winding of ignition coil consists of (a) a few turns of thin wire (b) many turns of thin wire (c) a few turns of thick wire (d) many turns of thick wire

Question 252:- Contact breaker points are generally made of (a) plastic (b) steel (c) copper (d) tungsten

Question 253:- The ‘dwell’ is (a) The time for which the points remain closed (b) the distance between the cam lobes (c) the angle at which the heal contacts the cam (d) none of the above

Question 254:- Excessive contact breaker gap results in (a) advanced timing (b) increased dwell (c) rapid burning of point (d) all of the above

Question 255:- The spark occurs when the (a) points closed (b) increased dwell (c) ignition switch is on (d) none of the above

Question 256:- Contact breaker points are opened by the cam and closed by the (a) same cam (b) centrifugal force (c) magnetic force (d) spring tension

Question 257:- The dwell angle on a six- cylinder engine compared to a four-cylinder engine is (a) more (b) less (c) equal (d) sometimes less and sometimes more

Question 258:- The contact breaker gap is set most accurate by means of a (a) feeler gauge (b) steel rule (c) dial gauge (d) dwell meter

Question 259:- Contact breaker gap should be set (a) before adjusting dwell angle (b) after adjusting dwell angle (c) first after starting the engine (d) after setting spark plug gap

Question 260:- The capacity of an automotive engine consider is approximately (a) 0.2 microfarads (b) 2 microfarads (c) 20 microfarads (d) 2 millifarads

Question 261:- The ratio of the distributor shaft and the crankshaft speed is (a) one (b) one-half (c) one-fourth (d) two

Question 262:- The centrifugal advance machine provides ignition advance proportional to (a) engine load (b) engine speed (c) both a and b (d) none of the above

Question 263:- Vacuum advance mechanism operate at (a) light engine load (b) heavy engine load (c) high engine speed (d) any of the above

Question 264:- Ignition timing can be adjusted by a (a) accurate clock (b) stop watch (c) stroboscopic light (d) vacuum gauge

Question 265:- The commonly used material of insulator of spark plug is (a) bakelite (b) asbestos (c) alumina (d) copper

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Question 266:- Compare to the life of a spark plug of two stroke engine, the spark plug life of a four-stroke engine is approximately (a) same (b) twice (c) one-half (d) none of the above

Question 267:- A spark may be fouled by (a) petrol (b) oil (c) lead (d) all of these

Question 268:- Spark plug having white insulator tip indicates (a) over advanced ignition (b) retarded ignition (c) leaded fuel (d) gas leak

Question 269:- A spark plug with a black centre insulator indicates (a) over advance ignition (b) retarded ignition (c) stuck-up choke valve in the carburretor (d) excessive dwell

Question 270:- A semi-conductor is a material with (a) more than four electrons in its outermost orbit (b) less than four electrons in its outermost orbit (c) exactly four electrons in its outermost orbit (d) none of the above

Question 271:- N-type semi-conductor material is obtained by doping with (a) antimony (b) iron (c) boron (d) silicon

Question 272:- Two types of semi-conductors are (a) doped and undoped (b) P and N (c) hole and electron (d) white and grey

Question 273:- Current will flow through a diode when it is connected (a) in forward bias (b) in reversed bias (c) to any suitable battery in any manner (d) none of the above

Question 274:- A zener diode is used for (a) rectification of current (b) blocking the current flow in reverse direction (c) voltage regulation (d) all of the above

Question 275:- A transistor consists of a base, (a) diode and emitter (b) diode and collector (c) emitter and collector (d) diode and thyristor

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Question 276:- A transistor is controlled by the current at (a) the base (b) the emitter (c) the collector (d) both the emitter and the collector

Question 277:- The ignition coil in an electronic ignition system is triggered on and off by means of a (a) contact breaker (b) diode (c) permanent magnet (d) timer

Question 278:- A pulse generator consists of a (a) permanent magnet, ignition coil and electronic control unit (b) permanent magnet, reluctor and electronic control unit (c) ignition coil, reluctor and electronic control unit (d) permanent magnet, reluctor and timer coil

Question 279:- The most accurate timer for electronic ignition system is the (a) diode (b) transistor (c) Hall effect switch (d) pulse generator

Question 280:- The number of ignition coils in a distributorless ignition system for a 6-cylinder engine is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6

Question 281:- The colour of positive plate of a lead-acid battery is (a) brown (b) grey (c) white (d) black

Question 282:- The colour of negative plate of a lead-acid battery is (a) brown (b) white (c) grey (d) black

Question 283:- The positive plate of a lead-acid battery has (a) PbO2 (b) Pb (c) PbSO4 (d) H2SO4

Question 284:- The negative plate of a lead-acid battery has (a) PbO2 (b) Pb (c) PbSO4 (d) H2SO4

Question 285:- Battery electrolyte consists of approximately (by volume) (a) 35 percent sulphuric acid and 65 percent waler (b) 65 percent sulphuric acid and 35 percent water (c) 65 percent nitric acid and 35 percent water (d) 35 percent nitric acid and 65 percent water

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Question 286:- To increase output voltage, battery cells are connected in (a) series (b) parallel (c) series-parallel (d) None of the above

Question 287:- The capacity of a battery is determined by the number of plates per cell and (a) number of cells (b) shape of plates (c) size of plates (d) number of separators

Question 288:- A maintenance-free battery (a) has lead-anlimony plate grid (b) has lead-calciuin plate grid (c) does not contain acid (d) does not contain water

Question 289:- The number of positive plates in a battery cell is (a) one more than the negative plates (b) one less than the negative plate (c) two less than the negative plates (d) two more than the negative plates

Question 290:- A discharged lead-acid battery has on its plates (a) PbO2 (b) Pb (c) Pb3O4 (d) PbSO4

Question 291:- A fully-charged 6 cell automotive battery should indicate (a) 12 V (b) 12.6 V (c) sp. gravity of 1.290 at 32°C (d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 292:- With the increase of battery temperature, the specific gravity of electrolyte (a) increases (b) decreases (c) stays the same (d) none of these

Question 293:- In a d.c. generator magnetic field is produced in the (a) armature (b) commutator (c) carbon brushes (d) stator

Question 294:- The three units contained in a regulator for automobile d.c. generator are (a) voltage regulator* current regulator and Zener diode (b) voltage regulator, current regulator and temperature compensator (c) voltage regulator, current regulator and cutout relay (d) any three of the above

Question 295:- The frequency of a vibrating contact type regulator for d.c. generator is (a) 20 per second (b) 200 per second (c) 20 per minute (d) 200 per minute

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Question 296:- The charging voltage at the start of the engine is ……………….than when the engine is running on load. (a) lower (b) higher (c) same (d) any of the above

Question 297:- In an alternator the magnetic field is produced in the (a) rotor (b) stator (c) frame (d) regulator

Question 298:- An alternator frame is made of (a) cast iron (b) brass (c) aluminium (d) copper

Question 299:- The number of windings in the stator of an alternator is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

Question 300:- The number of windings in the stator of an alternator is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6

Question 301:- The output of an alternator is controlled by (a) voltage regulator (b) cutout relay (c) current regulator (d) all of the above

Question 302:- A thermister is used in an alternator regulator to (a) control maximum voltage (b) control maximum current (c) compensate for temperature change (d) all of the above

Question 303:- Gear reduction between the starting motor and the flywheel is about (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 50

Question 304:- In a starter motor the field windings are wound around (a) armature (b) commutator (c) brush (d) pole shoes

Question 305:- Automotive starting motors are (a) series wound (b) series-shunt wound (c) shunt wound (d) both (a) and (b)above

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Question 306:- The stalling torques of starting motors for cars vary between (a) 10-30Nm (b) 30-60 Nm (c) 60-100 Nm (d) 100-180 Nm

Question 307:- Inertia type drives are commonly employed in (a) cars (b) light transport vehicles (c) heavy transport vehicles (d) cross-country vehicles

Question 308:- Any short-circuit in the armature winding may be tested with a (a) multimeter (b) growler (c) voltmeter (d) ammeter

Question 309:- Continuity in the field windings can be tested with a (a) multimeter (b) growler (c) voltmeter (d) none of the above

Question 310:- Apart from hydrocarbons, the main Pollutants in the engine exhaust are (a) CO and CO2 (b) CO2 and NOX (c) CO and NOX (d) CO2 and H2O

Question 311:- Maximum allowable hydrocarbons in the car emission are approximately (a) 10 ppm (b) 100 ppm (c) 1000 ppm (d) 5000 ppm

Question 312:- CO in the exhaust of a car engine should not be more than (a) 0.5% (b) 2 % (c) 5% (d) 10%

Question 313:- The PCV valve is located between the (a) air cleaner and the carburettor (b) carburettor and the intake manifold (c) intake manifold and air cleaner (d) intake manifold and crankcase

Question 314:- In ease of engines backfiring, the PCV valve (a) opens maximum (b) closes (c) disintegrates (d) sticks in the centre position

Question 315:- The position of the PCV valve plunger at idle speed is (a) towards the valve outlet side (d) near the valve centre (c) towards the crankcase (b) towards the valve inlet side

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Question 316:- The function of charcoal granules is to absorb (a) waler vapour (b) carbon monoxide (c) petrol vapour (d) liquid petrol

Question 317:- The liquid-vapour separator is located near the (a) fuel tank (b) carburettor (c) charcoal canister (d) purge valve

Question 318:- EGR system is employed for controlling emissions of (a) HC (b) CO (c) NO (d) HC and CO

Question 319:- The pump for the air injection system is of (a) gear type (b) eccentric type (c) vane type (d) reciprocating type

Question 320:- The main purpose of the diverter valve in the air injection system is to (a) close the check valve (b) prevent backfire in the exhaust system (c) prevent backfire in the inlet manifold (d) weaken the air-fuel mixture

Question 321:- The catalyst used in the reduction converter is (a) copper (b) charcoal (c) rodium (d) platinum

Question 322:- The catalyst used in the converter for oxidising HC and CO is (a) copper (b) charcoal (c) radium (d) platinum

Question 323:- In a three-way converter, the first converter controls (a) HC (b) CO (c) NOx (d) all of these

Question 324:- The air fuel ratio required for the efficient operation of a three-way converter is approximated (a) 5:1 (b) 10:1 (c) 15:1 (d) 20:1

Question 325:- Heavy duty oil bath type air cleaner is/was used in the engine of (a) Premier Padmini (b) Dolphin (c) Premier Roadmaster (d) Maruti 800

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Question 326:- Compression ratio of 22.4 is used in the engine of (a) Premier Roadmaster (b) Mahindra MM-540 DP Jeep (c) Tata LPT-1210D (d) Ashok Leyland Comet

Question 327:- V-eight engine was employed in (a) Rolls-Royce Camargue (b) Chrysler Averagerdelux (c) Citroen CX 2400 safari (d) Audi 100 SE

Question 328:- Five cylinder in-line engine is used in (a) Gold GTI 16 V (b) Mercedes Benz 200 (c) Renault R 2106 (d) Audi 100 SE

Question 329:- V-12 engine is used in (a) Rolls-Royce Camargue (b) Morgan Plus 8 (c) Daimler Double-six (d) Alfa Romeo 2000 Spider Veloce

Question 330:- Electronic fuel injection system system is used in engine of (a) Daimler Double-six (b) Audi 100 SE (c) Volvo 740 GLE (d) all of these

Question 331:- 4 × 2 drive chassis vehicle consists of …… wheels out of which …… wheels are the driving wheels. (A) 4, 2 (B) 2, 4 (C) 4, 4 (D) None

Question 332:- The first automobile powered by steam engine was built in France by— (A) Nicholas Joseph Cugnot (B) Elwood J. Haynes (C) Henry Ford (D) Diamler Benz

Question 333:- The driving member of clutch usually consists of two …… plates machines. (A) Aluminium (B) Copper (C) Cast iron (D) None of these

Question 334:- The lateral run out should not exceed …… mm if it is more, clutch plate should be disordered. (A) 10 mm (B) 5 mm (C) 1·1 mm (D) 0·7 mm

Question 335:- In the year 1885, the real automobile was built by which of the following man? (A) Nicholas-Joseph Cugnot (B) Daimler Benz (C) Henry ford (D) Elwood J. Haynes

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Question 336:- In a clutch will coil springs, the wear of the clutch lacing will cause the clamping load to (a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain constant (d) become infinite

Question 337:- The cause of the fault “slippage of clutch” is— (A) Worn out or broken clutch facings (B) Rusty or jammed pressure plates (C) Oil on clutch facing (D) All are correct

Question 338:- The cause of the fault ‘Clutch Grabing’ is— (A) Oily clutch facing (B) Loose or broken engine foundation (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 339:- The cause of the fault ‘Clutch vibration’ is— (A) Bent clutch shaft (B) Loose hub in clutch disc (C) Engine idling too fast (D) None of these

Question 340:- The cause of the fault ‘failure of clutch’ is— (A) Worn out clutch plates (B) Oil or grease in clutch lining (C) Bent clutch shaft (D) All are correct

Question 341:- The cause of the fault ‘Noisy clutch’ is— (A) Oily clutch facing (B) Defective release bearing (C) Loose clutch plate hub (D) All are correct

Question 342:- Requirements of a good braking system is— (A) Brake should be beauty (B) Brake should be noisy (C) Brake should have less wearing parts (D) All are correct

Question 343:- Which of the following system is incorporated in the vehicle so that the moving vehicle can be stopped by the driver as and when he wants? (A) Brake system (B) Transmission system (C) Ignition system (D) Hand brake

Question 344:- In liquid cooling method, instead of water, other liquids having …… boiling points are used for cooling. (A) Lower (B) Higher (C) Any (D) None

Question 345:- The example of higher boiling point liquid is— (A) Glycerine (B) Ethylene glycol (C) Both (D) None

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Question 346:- Which is a type of temperature indicators? (A) Mechanical type (B) Electric type (C) Both (D) None

Question 347:- A good anti-freeze material have the requirements— (A) It should mix readily with water (B) It should circulate freely in the cooling system (C) It should be reasonably cheap (D) All are correct

Question 348:- What are the possible causes of overcooling? (A) Defective thermostat (B) Inaccurate temperature gauge (C) Both (D) None of these

Question 349:- The planetary gears are used to …… speed by arranging to have the ring gear driven by the planet pinion cage. (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Same (D) None of these

Question 350:- The maximum speed at which the engine can do this is called— (A) Cut out speed (B) Cut in speed (C) Cut-cut speed (D) None of these

Question 351:- Which of the following is the cause of the trouble ‘Not going into overdrive’? (A) Defective wiring (B) Defective solenoid (C) Defective relay (D) All are correct

Question 352:- Which of the following is the cause of the trouble ‘oil leakage’? (A) Defective or broken gasket or oil seals (B) Loose mounting (C) Excessive lubricant (D) All are correct

Question 353:- What is the cause of the trouble ‘Noise in overdrive’? (A) worn gears (B) Worn main shaft bearing (C) Both are correct (D) None are correct

Question 354:- What is the cause of the trouble ‘Not coming out of overdrive’? (A) Defective wiring (B) Defective solenoid (C) Jammed pawl (D) All are correct

Question 355:- The distance between the centre of front wheels is known as— (A) Wheel track (B) Wheel base (C) Chassis (D) Body

Question 356:- The side walls are …… compound which serve as protective covering to the casing. (A) Rubber (B) Steel (C) Aluminium (D) None of these

Question 357:- The rim which can be removed easily from the wheel is called— (A) Mountable rim (B) Demountable rim (C) Both (D) None of these

Question 358:- Mag wheels are called as such because they are cast from magnesium— (A) True (B) False (C) Both (D) None

Question 359:- To which wheels should new tyres be filled? (A) Front wheels (B) Back wheels (C) Middle wheels (D) None of these

Question 360:- …… refers to an uncontrollable motion of the front wheel due to violent vibration at high speed. (A) Brake drums (B) Wheel tramp (C) Tyre (D) None of these

Question 361:- Which of the following is the major parts of a tubeless tyre? (A) Carcass (B) Tread (C) Both (D) None of these

Question 362:- That part of the wheel which is the supporting member between the axle and the rim is called— (A) Wheel centre (B) Rim (C) Dual wheel (D) None of these

Question 363:- That part of the wheel on which the tyre is mounted and supported is called— (A) Wheel centre (B) Rim (C) Dual wheel (D) None of these

Question 364:- A wheel so constructed that the centre line of the rim is located in board of the attachment face of the disc is called— (A) Zero set wheel (B) Dual wheel (C) Rim (D) Inset wheel

Question 365:- A wheel so constructed that the centre line of the rim is located out board of the attachment face of the disc is called— (A) Outset wheel (B) Zeroset wheel (C) Rim (D) Dual wheel

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Question 366:- The distance between the centre lines of the rims to provide the required clearance between tyres is called— (A) Dual spacing (B) Zeroset wheel (C) Rim (D) None of these

Question 367:- For wheel and tyre troubles the cause of one side wear of tyres is— (A) Incorrect camber angle and toe-in (B) High tyre pressure (C) Buckled wheel (D) None of these

Question 368:- For wheel and tyre trouble the cause of Uneven tyre wear is— (A) Buckled wheel (B) Unbalanced wheel (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 369:- For wheel and tyre troubles the cause of the trouble uniform rapid wear is— (A) Driving on rough road (B) Fast driving (C) Both are correct (D) None of the above

Question 370:- For wheel and tyre troubles the cause of the trouble Loss of pressure is— (A) Normal diffusion of air through the tube material (B) Faulty valve (C) Leaking patch (D) All of the above

Question 371:- Excessive tyre wear due to mechanical defect is due to— (A) Toe in or toe out defective (B) Wrong setting of camber angle (C) Bent chassis (D) All are correct

Question 372:- Which of the following factor affect the wheel and tyre assembly balance? (A) Lateral run out of the wheel (B) Radial run out or run-of round of the wheel (C) Both are correct (D) None of the above

Question 373:- Efficiency of cooling system depends upon which of the following? (A) Area of fins (B) Temperature of the engine (C) Fitting position of the engine (D) All of the above

Question 374:- Power from the engine is transmitted to the rear wheel by which of the following method— (A) Direct coupled (B) Chain drive (C) V-belt drive (D) All are correct

Question 375:- Power from gear box is transmitted to rear wheel with the help of …… bell. (A) V (B) B (C) X (D) S

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Question 376:- Ordinarily all scooters and motor cycles have …… forward speeds. (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 10

Question 377:- But now-a-day Lumbretta and export model OC of Bajaj has …… forward speed. (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 10

Question 378:- Rajdoot motor cycle contains which type of chassis— (A) Tubular section (B) Integral frame (C) Box section (D) None of these

Question 379:- The scooters, motor cycles and mopeds contain the type of chassis as— (A) Tubular section (B) Integral frame (C) Box section (D) All are correct

Question 380:- The Bajaj scooters contain the chassis— (A) Tubular section (B) Integral frame (C) Box section (D) None of these

Question 381:- The bulb is fitted on the axle shaft with the help of— (A) Ball bearing (B) Taper roller (C) (A) or (B) (D) None of these

Question 382:- What is the remedy of the cause “crankshaft woodruft key loose in flywheel hub”? (A) Fill up tank (B) Replace with new key (C) Clean the same (D) None of these

Question 383:- What is the remedy of the cause “carbon deposit in combustion chamber”? (A) Clean the exhaust pipe (B) Tight the chamber (C) Decarbonize the engine (D) All are correct

Question 384:- What is the remedy of the cause “Gummed up rings”? (A) Clean it (B) Clean the ring groove and use new piston rings (C) Overhaul the carburettor (D) All are correct

Question 385:- What is the remedy of the cause “choked air bleed hole in carburettor”? (A) Overhaul the carburettor (B) Set it right (C) Clean it (D) Fit it correctly

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Question 386:- What is the remedy of the cause “short condenser”? (A) Replace with a new one (B) Set it correctly (C) Clean it (D) Fit it correctly

Question 387:- Nearly …… tractors are made every year in India. (A) 52000 to 54 000 (B) 20000 to 25000 (C) 10000 to 15000 (D) 5000 to 15000

Question 388:- Which of the following is a tractor? (A) Eicher (B) Escorts (C) Ford (D) All are correct

Question 389:- The front axle beam is used in which of the following sections— (A) I-section (B) Tubular section (C) Oblong section (D) All are correct

Question 390:- “ ” Shows which of the following section? (A) Circular section (B) Oblong section (C) Square section (D) None

Question 391:- Which of the following is a type of draw bar? (A) Regular draw-bars (B) Three point linkage draw bar (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 392:- To control the depth of implement to safe limit which of the following methods are employed? (A) Depth wheel (B) Hydraulic depth control (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 393:- Which of the following is a type of pumps? (A) Plunger pump (B) Gear pump (C) Vane pump (D) All are correct

Question 394:- The used valve (Hydraulic valve) is— (A) Spool valve (B) Rotary valve (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 395:- Tappet clearance for 4-stroke engine is usually kept at …… for inlet. (A) 0·003″ (B) 0·004″ (C) 0·005″ (D) 0·006″

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Question 396:- Tappet clearance for 4-stroke engine is usually kept at …… for exhaust. (A) 0·003″ (B) 0·004″ (C) 0·005″ (D) 0·008″

Question 397:- What is the remedy of the cause ”Fault ignition timing”? (A) Set it correctly (B) Clean it (C) Overhaul the carburettor (D) Tight cylinder head nuts properly

Question 398:- What is the speed ratio of second shift position? (A) 3·583 (B) 2·166 (C) 0·999 (D) None

Question 399:- What is the speed ratio of top shift position? (A) 3·589 (B) 2·166 (C) 0·999 (D) None

Question 400:- What is the gear ratio of reverse shift position? (A) 37/22 × 22/11 (B) 27/30 (C) 27/20 × 11/30 (D) None

Question 401:- What is the speed ratio of reverse shift position? (A) 3·363 (B) 2·932 (C) 0·999 (D) 0·876

Question 402:- The transfer case is essentially a …… speed transmission. (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four

Question 403:- Noise in gear is due to— (A) Dry rear bearing on main shaft (B) Damaged speedometer drive gear (C) Both (D) None of the above

Question 404:- A hum or bowl in neutral is due to— (A) Lack of lubrication (B) Worn shaft (C) Worn bearings (D) All are correct

Question 405:- Oil leaks from the gear box due to the following reasons— (A) Too high oil level in case (B) Loose cover bolts (C) Loose drain or filler plug (D) All are correct

Question 406:- Hard shifting occurs due to— (A) Distorted splines of the main shaft (B) Too strong shifter lock spring (C) Battered gear teeth (D) All are correct

Question 407:- Slipping out of gear is due to— (A) Too much clearance between teeth in mesh (B) Insufficient mesh or gears (C) Weak shifter lock spring (D) All are correct

Question 408:- To turn the drive at 90° and to give the required speed reduction, the basic type of gearing is— (A) Bevel gear (B) Worm and worm wheel (C) Both (D) None

Question 409:- The worm and worm wheel arrangement for final gear reduction is extremely— (A) Weak (B) Strong (C) Same (D) None of these

Question 410:- The transversely mounted engine does not require its final drive turned through— (A) 180° (B) 0° (C) 60° (D) 90°

Question 411:- The trouble noisy differential is due to— (A) Loose star pinion (B) Wrong out hub bearing (C) Both of them (D) None of the above

Question 412:- “Vehicle does not move when put in gear” this is due to— (A) Broken propeller shaft (B) Broken pinion flange key (C) Broken axle shaft (D) All are correct

Question 413:- When the axle moves up and down from its normal position the distance between the output flange of gearbox and input flange of differential— (A) Is same (B) Decreases (C) Increases (D) None of these

Question 414:- Constant velocity joint point are mostly used in front axle drive vehicles or in vehicles having …… wheel drive. (A) 4 × 4 (B) 4 × 6 (C) 6 × 6 (D) 2 × 2

Question 415:- Constant velocity joints are used when the angle of drive is more than— (A) 90° (B) 60° (C) 45° (D) 30°

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Question 416:- Propeller shaft is made out of …… tubing. (A) Steel (B) Aluminium (C) Rubber (D) None of these

Question 417:- Hotchkiss drive is mostly used in all the— (A) Cars (B) Trucks (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

Question 418:- What is the remedy of the trouble loose flanged yoke? (A) Tighten it fully (B) Replace universal joint (C) Replace a part (D) None of the above

Question 419:- What is the method of employed of type of drive for rear axle? (A) Radius rod drive (B) Torque tube drive (C) Torque arm drive (D) All are correct

Question 420:- Which is correct? (A) A metal having lower conductivity dissipates more amount of heat (B) A metal having higher conductivity dissipates more amount of heat (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 421:- What is the possible cause of poor coolant circulation? (A) Restriction in system (B) Loose fan belt (C) Both (D) None

Question 422:- High pressure of coolant produces— (A) High frictional forces (B) Low frictional forces (C) Power loss (D) None of these

Question 423:- The function of the steering system is to convert— (A) The rotary movement of the steering wheel into angular turn of the front wheels (B) The angular turn of the front wheels into the rotary movement of the steering wheel (C) Both are correct (D) None of these are correct

Question 424:- Which of the following is the function of steering system? (A) In helps in swinging the wheels to the left or right (B) It helps in turning the vehicle at the will of the driver (C) It provides directional stability (D) All are correct

Question 425:- The assembly of the shaft and jacket is called— (A) Steering row (B) Steering matrix (C) Steering column (D) None of these

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Question 426:- The diameter of the steering wheel lies between …… in case of motor cars. (A) 24·5 to 54 cm (B) 42·5 to 45 cm (C) 32·1 to 5·4 cm (D) None of these

Question 427:- Steering wheel diameter of ambassador is— (A) 15 cm (B) 22 cm (C) 32 cm (D) 43·2 cm

Question 428:- Steering wheel diameter of Willys Jeep is— (A) 43·8 cm (B) 39·3 cm (C) 32 cm (D) None

Question 429:- Steering wheel diameter of Maruti 800 car is— (A) 30 cm (B) 37 cm (C) 37 m (D) 30 m

Question 430:- The steering wheel diameter of premier car is— (A) 34 cm (B) 43 cm (C) 22 cm (D) 12 cm

Question 431:- The steering wheel diameter of the standard-10 car is— (A) 39 cm (B) 93 cm (C) 22 cm (D) None

Question 432:- The length of the steering arm or drop arm varies between …… in case of motor cars. (A) 10·5 to 10·8 (B) 12·5 to 20·0 (C) 20·0 to 25·0 (D) None

Question 433:- The length of the steering arm or drop arm varies between …… for commercial vehicles of the heavy type. (A) 20·0 to 25·0 (B) 12·5 to 20·0 (C) 9·5 to 9·8 (D) None

Question 434:- The angle between the wheel inclination and the path taken by the wheel is called— (A) Slip angle (B) Steering angle (C) Drum angle (D) None

Question 435:- Which of the following factor affect the wheel alignment? (A) Factors pertaining to wheel (B) Steering geometry (C) Steering linkages (D) All are correct

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Question 436:- The angle between the centre line of the tyre and the vertical line is known as— (A) Chamber (B) Steering geometry (C) Camber (D) None

Question 437:- For fiat 1100 what is the value of king pin inclination? (A) 8° (B) 2° (C) 3° (D) 7°

Question 438:- For jeep CJ-3 B the value of steering ratio is— (A) 14: 5 (B) 14: 1 (C) 10: 1 (D) None

Question 439:- For Hindustan Ambassador Mark II, the type of steering is— (A) Worm and Roller (B) Rack and pinion (C) Cam (D) Recirculating ball

Question 440:- The type of steering for Ashok leyland is— (A) Worm and roller (B) Rack and pinion (C) Cam and double roller (D) None of the above

Question 441:- For fiat 1100 the value of steering ratio is— (A) 14: 1 (B) 164: 1 (C) 24: 1 (D) 1: 12

Question 442:- The caster angle for Ashok leyland is— (A) 1° (B) 3° (C) 7° (D) 9°

Question 443:- The camber angle for Jeep CJ-3B is— (A) 1° (B) 112 ° (C) 3° (D) 7°

Question 444:- The camber angle for Jeep CJ-3B is— (A) 1° (B) 112 ° (C) 3° (D) 7°

Question 445:- The value of b l for correct steering lies between— (A) 0·4 to 0·5 (B) 1·2 to 1·5 (C) 0·1 to 0·2 (D) 1·1 to 1·9

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Question 446:- The value of king pin inclination for dodge is— (A) 8° (B) 7° (C) 3° (D) 1°

Question 447:- The thickness of the film between the bearing and journal depends upon— (A) Load (B) Speed (C) Type of the lubricant (D) All are correct

Question 448:- What is necessary for tuning procedure? (A) Test engine compression (B) Clean and inspect rotor and replace it, if it is not in good condition (C) Check distributor centrifugal advance (D) All are correct

Question 449:- Crankshaft thumping may originate from which one of the following cause— (A) Excessive main bearing clearance (B) Excessive crankshaft axial play (C) Low oil pressure (D) All are correct

Question 450:- The noises due to connecting rod are usually …… intense than those originated by main bearings. (A) More (B) Less (C) Same (D) None

Question 451:- Which of the following cause is of rod noise? (A) Insufficient lubrication (B) Low oil pressure (C) Both are correct (D) None are correct

Question 452:- A reading of what specific gravity indicate a fully charged condition— (A) 2·00 to 3·00 (B) 1·220 to 1·230 (C) 1·111 to 2·222 (D) None of these

Question 453:- The cam angle for prestolite is— (A) 42° (B) 90° (C) 60° (D) 0°

Question 454:- The cam angle for lucas TVS is— (A) 42° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 90°

Question 455:- The point gap of prestolite is— (A) 0·50 mm (B) 0·41 mm (C) 0·01 mm (D) None of these

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Question 456:- The point gap of lucas TVS is— (A) 0·50 mm (B) 0·41 mm (C) 0·01 mm (D) None of these

Question 457:- The spark plugs gap for making MICO or KLG is— (A) 0·76 mm (B) 0·11 mm (C) 1·0 mm (D) None of these

Question 458:- For tuning up a jeep engine which is adjusted correctly at last— (A) Spark plug (B) Carburettor (C) Ignition timing (D) None

Question 459:- The normal oil pressure in a new or overhauled engine must be …… kg/cm2. (A) 1 to 5 (B) 2·5 to 3 (C) 3 to 5 (D) 5 to 9

Question 460:- Which one of the following is possible cause of insufficient oil pressure? (A) Unsuitable grade of oil (B) Spoiled oil (C) Defective relief valve (D) All are correct

Question 461:- Which of the following causes is for engine vibrations? (A) Defective ignition (B) Defective carburetion (C) Clutch out of balance (D) All are correct

Question 462:- The excessive axial play of crankshaft gives a …… noise at irregular intervals. (A) Higher (B) Lower (C) Same (D) None

Question 463:- What is the possible cause of trouble “engine runs but misses are cylinder”? (A) Defective spark plug (B) Stuck valve (C) Defective head gasket (D) All are correct

Question 464:- Engine turns over slowly but does not start what is its possible cause? (A) Discharge battery (B) Defective cranking motor (C) Both are correct (D) None of the above

Question 465:- Which one of the following is smoky exhaust? (A) Blue smoke (B) Black smoke (C) Both (D) None

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Question 466:- What is the possible cause if the engine overheats? (A) Lack of water (B) Late ignition timing (C) Clogged water jackets (D) All are correct

Question 467:- Which one of the following is the cause of overheating? (A) Low type pressure (B) Over speeding (C) Rich fuel mixture (D) All are correct

Question 468:- When the vehicle’s starter will not run then its possible cause is— (A) Main fuse is blown off (B) Run-down battery (C) Defective brushes in starter (D) All are correct

Question 469:- What is the possible cause when horn will not sound off? (A) Blown-off fuse (B) Broken circuit wire (C) Defective horn (D) All are correct

Question 470:- What is the possible cause when fuel meter gives no indication? (A) Open circuit (B) Burnt point (C) Both (D) None

Question 471:- What is the possible cause of faulty meter indication? (A) Incomplete metal to metal contact (B) Defective receiver gauge (C) Erratic float movement (D) All are correct

Question 472:- What is the possible cause of steering noise? (A) Loose bolts and nuts (B) Loose leaf spring seats (C) Worn or sticky tie rod ends (D) All are correct

Question 473:- The lubricant used for steam cylinders is— (A) Lard oil (B) Tallow oil (C) Tape oil (D) All are correct

Question 474:- Which of the following chemical is used in the battery? (A) Sponge lead (solid) (B) Lead oxide (paste) (C) Sulphuric acid (Liquid) (D) All are correct

Question 475:- When the battery is half discharged then its specific gravity (27°) is— (A) 1·100 (B) 1·175 (C) 1·220 (D) None

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Question 476:- When the battery is fully discharged then its specific gravity (27°) is— (A) 1·175 (B) 1·220 (C) 1·100 (D) None

Question 477:- For battery the amount of current depends upon the following factor— (A) No. of plates (B) Area of plates (C) Temperature (D) All are correct

Question 478:- Which of the following test of primary importance with respect to the lead acid battery is— (A) Capacity test (B) High rate discharge test (C) Life cycle test (D) All are correct

Question 479:- It is important that specific gravity …… be used to determine the degree of recharge except at the final stages. (A) Can (B) Can not (C) Remain (D) None

Question 480:- All the heavier vehicles use a …… battery system. (A) 2 V (B) 6 V (C) 12 V (D) 24 V

Question 481:- …… is the quantity of electrical charge furnished by a current of one ampere for one hour. (A) Ampere (B) Ampere hour (C) Ampere second (D) None of these

Question 482:- If a battery is continuously undercharged it becomes— (A) Acideted (B) Leaded (C) Sulphated (D) None

Question 483:- It is commonly believed that a storage battery stores the …… but it is not true. (A) Electric energy (B) Chemical energy (C) Both of them (D) None of these

Question 484:- Lead peroxide is of …… colour. (A) Black (B) White (C) Green (D) Chocolate

Question 485:- Now a day …… type of chargers are commonly used. (A) Amplifier (B) Fire (C) Rectifier (D) None of these

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Question 486:- Body of the dynamo is made of …… steel in circular pipe shape. (A) Oil (B) Black (C) Milk (D) None of these

Question 487:- End shields are made of— (A) Cast iron (B) Aluminium allay (C) Both of them (D) None of these

Question 488:- For checking the field coil connect the coil in …… with 12 volt battery and fix up 36 watts bulb in the circuit. (A) Series (B) Parallel (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

Question 489:- A four-speed gear box provides— (A) I, II and III gear (B) I, II and top gear (C) I, II, III and top gear (D) None of the above

Question 490:- A five-speed gear box provides— (A) Five speed gear (B) Four-speed gear (C) All possible gear (D) Not more than three gears

Question 491:- What is the gear ratio of low shift position? (A) 43 (B) 43/12 (C) 87 (D) 87/20

Question 492:- What is the gear ratio of top shift position? (A) 27/30 (B) 43/12 (C) 87/20 (D) 80/12

Question 493:- What is the gear ratio of second shift position? (A) 27/30 (B) 43/12 (C) 39/18 (D) 80/17

Question 494:- What is the gear ratio of third shift position? (A) 27/30 (B) 43/12 (C) 39/18 (D) 32/24

Question 495:- What is the ratio of final reduction shift position? (A) 3·858 (B) 2·333 (C) 0·999 (D) 4·350

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Question 496:- What is the speed ratio of low shift position? (A) 3·583 (B) 0·999 (C) 0·234 (D) None

Question 497:- The main purpose of inspection is— (A) Electrical equipment (B) Mechanical build up of chassis or frame (C) Complaints rectification and repairs (D) All are correct

Question 498:- A Laboratory test bed consists of— (A) A dynamometer (B) An adjustable engine stand or cradle (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 499:- For checking the performance of an automobile which of the following test is necessary? (A) Laboratory testing (B) Test bed (C) Road testing (D) All are correct

Question 500:- Motor vehicles are tested by— (A) Laboratory test (B) Road test (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 501:- Which of the following is under performance test? (A) Preliminary tests (B) Air resistance (C) Maximum speed (D) All are correct

Question 502:- Which of the following is the advantage of hydraulic brake system? (A) Wearing parts are lesser (B) System is self compensating (C) System provides equal braking effect (D) All are correct

Question 503:- Wheel cylinder consists of …… pistons. (A) 2 or 1 (B) 3 or 1 (C) 2 or 3 (D) 3 or 4

Question 504:- What is the remedies of cause ‘Lack of brake oil’? (A) Adjust brake shoe (B) Top up brake oil (C) Fit new lining (D) All are correct

Question 505:- What is the remedy of the cause ‘worn out brake linings’? (A) Adjust brake lining or fit new lining (B) Bleed the brake system (C) Adjust the brake shoe (D) All are correct

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Question 506:- What is the cause of noisy brakes fault? (A) Bent back plate (B) Dirty lining (C) Drum distorted (D) All are correct

Question 507:- What is the cause of brake pedal spongy fault? (A) Air in hydraulic system (B) Improper brake oil (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 508:- Separator is made up of which of the following material? (A) Wood (B) Plastic (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

Question 509:- Battery box is made of hard …… with separate compartments for each cell. (A) Wood (B) Rubber (C) Plastic (D) None of these

Question 510:- In electrolyte the ratio between pure sulphuric acid and distilled water. (A) 1: 7 (B) 2: 8 (C) 1: 10 (D) 10: 11

Question 511:- Charging dynamo intermittently or charging less is due to— (A) Loose connection of dynamo terminal (B) Loose earth connection (C) Dirty commutator (D) All are correct

Question 512:- Battery is an assembly of cells in series with the positive terminal of one connected to the negative of the other. (A) True (B) False (C) Both (D) None of these

Question 513:- A type of battery cell that cannot be recharged is called— (A) Secondary cell (B) Primary cell (C) Both cells (D) None of these

Question 514:- Specific gravity of battery electrolyte is measured to determine the battery’s— (A) Cold cranking amperes (B) Reverse rating (C) State of charge (D) Life expectation

Question 515:- If the specific gravity of the acid in a battery is low, is it desirable to add some more acid? (A) Yes (B) No (C) Both (D) Correct

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Question 516:- What is the specific gravity for a fully charged battery? (A) Between 1·23 and 1·28 (B) Between 5·23 and 5·92 (C) Between 1·11 and 2·93 (D) None of the above

Question 517:- How is the hydrometer reading taken correctly? (A) Reading must be taken when electrolyte becomes still. (B) The eye should be placed at the level of electrolyte to have a correct reading (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 518:- Before the battery is put on charge— (A) The battery box must be properly cleaned (B) Vent plug should be removed (C) Both (D) None

Question 519:- Which type of water is used in electrolyte? (A) Ordinary type (B) Distilled water (C) Solution of anything (D) None of these

Question 520:- What type of battery is used in automobiles? (A) Lead acid battery (B) Alkaline battery (C) Both (D) None

Question 521:- Which of the following is the component of lead acid battery? (A) Container (B) Plates (C) Separator (D) All are correct

Question 522:- The container of a lead-acid battery is made of— (A) Hard rubber (B) Plastic (C) Bituminous (D) All are correct

Question 523:- Electrolyte consists of— (A) Pure sulphuric acid (B) Distilled water (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

Question 524:- When electrolyte is ready then its specific gravity should be— (A) 100 (B) 1000 (C) 10 (D) 10000

Question 525:- When the negative pole of one battery is connected to the positive pole of the other battery, the batteries are said to be connected in— (A) Parallel (B) Series (C) Both (D) None

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Question 526:- If two batteries of 6 volts each are connected in series, then the total capacity of this set will be— (A) 12 volts (B) 6 volts (C) 1 volts (D) 18 volts

Question 527:- When the negative pole of one battery is connected to negative pole of other battery and positive pole to other pole, the batteries are said to be connected in— (A) Parallel (B) Series (C) Both (D) None

Question 528:- When the batteries are connected in parallel then the current shall be— (A) Triple (B) Same (C) Double (D) One fourth

Question 529:- Dynamo converts— (A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy (B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy (C) Chemical energy into heat energy (D) Heat energy into liquid energy

Question 530:- Which of the following is a component of dynamo? (A) Armature (B) Field coils (C) Brushes (D) All are correct

Question 531:- Dynamo is not producing current when there is— (A) Loose or broken wire connection (B) Defective switch (C) Broken or loose V-belt (D) All are correct

Question 532:- The main lights are— (A) Head lights (B) Parking light (C) Blinker lights (D) All are correct

Question 533:- The head lamps are of …… watts in a medium priced car. (A) 40-50 (B) 400-500 (C) 100-200 (D) 1000-2000

Question 534:- The candle power (cp) of parking lights is— (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 1·5 (D) 2·05

Question 535:- The candle power of stop lights is— (A) 1·5 (B) 2·5 (C) 3·5 (D) 3

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Question 536:- Which of the following light contains 3 cp? (A) License plate light (B) Tail lights (C) Stop light (D) All are correct

Question 537:- Which of the following light contains 1·5 cp? (A) Instrument lights (B) Map light (C) Clock light (D) All are correct

Question 538:- The candle power of glove compartment light is— (A) 1 (B) 1·5 (C) 3 (D) 6

Question 539:- Which of the following light contain 6 cp? (A) Map light (B) Head (C) Dome light (D) None

Question 540:- The candle power of Head light is— (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 50000-75000

Question 541:- The candle power of Trunk compartment light is— (A) 1 (B) 1·5 (C) 6 (D) None

Question 542:- What is the maximum intensity of upper beam? (A) 1 cp (B) 6 cp (C) 75000 cp (D) 3 cp

Question 543:- Brown colour indicates— (A) Battery circuit interior light (B) Ignition circuit (C) Generator circuit (D) None of these

Question 544:- Blue light indicates— (A) All ground wired (B) Head lamp circuit (C) Flasher unit (D) Generator circuit

Question 545:- For all ground wire we use the colour— (A) Black (B) White (C) Red (D) Yellow

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Question 546:- White colour indicates— (A) Ignition circuit (B) All ground wire (C) Generator circuit (D) None of these

Question 547:- For generator circuit which of the following colour is used— (A) Black (B) Blue (C) Brown (D) Yellow

Question 548:- Brown colour is used to indicate— (A) Control box (B) Ammeter (C) Horn (D) All of these

Question 549:- For fused auxiliary circuit the colour is used— (A) Yellow (B) Green (C) Blue (D) Brown

Question 550:- For Head lamp circuit fed from terminal on terminal switch we use— (A) Yellow (B) Brown (C) Blue (D) None

Question 551:- Green colour is used for— (A) Stop lamps (B) Fuse gauge (C) Direction indicators (D) All of the above

Question 552:- For automobile wiring which type of wire is used— (A) P.V.C. (B) Cotton braided wires (C) Both the wires (D) None of these

Question 553:- Which is a type of bulb? (A) Bayonet type (B) Prefocus type (C) Festoon type (D) All are correct

Question 554:- Which is a type of bulb? (A) Single contact (B) Double filament (C) Both (D) None of these

Question 555:- An automobile contains which of the following circuit? (A) Head light circuit (B) Starting circuit (C) Side light circuit (D) All are correct

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Question 556:- In automobiles the wires are connected in which of the following way— (A) Earth return system (B) Double pole system (C) Both the ways (D) None of the above ways

Question 557:- In earth return system which terminal of the battery is earthed to the body or chassis which is made of metal— (A) Negative (B) Positive (C) Both (D) None of these

Question 558:- On copper wires …… is moulded on top of wire— (A) Rubber (B) Plastic (C) Both (D) None of these

Question 559:- In automobile which of the horn is used— (A) Bulb horns (B) Air pressure horns (C) Electric horns (D) All are correct

Question 560:- …… light illuminate back of the car in the night so that the other vehicle coming behind it are able to see it. (A) Head (B) Parking (C) Tail (D) Stop

Question 561:- …… are used to indicate the direction in which the vehicle is to turn. (A) Direction signal direction (B) Stop light (C) Parking light (D) Interior light

Question 562:- …… are at the rear of the car and becomes on when brakes are aiming. (A) Head light (B) Stop light (C) Interior light (D) None of these

Question 563:- …… must be aimed correctly to the required direction to get proper light on the road and to prevent the vehicle from accident— (A) Stop lights (B) Head lights (C) Interior lights (D) Parking light

Question 564:- The unit to measure the brightness of the source light is— (A) Candle power (B) Power (C) Candle (D) None

Question 565:- The directional signal lights are operated— (A) Manually (B) Automatically (C) Both A and B (D) None of these

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Question 566:- The current carrying capacity of cable size 44/ 0·012 is— (A) 22 amp. (B) 14 amp. (C) 7 amp. (D) 10 amp.

Question 567:- The current carrying capacity of cable size 28/ 0·012 is— (A) 22 amp. (B) 14 amp. (C) 7 amp. (D) 10 amp.

Question 568:- The current carrying capacity of cable size 14/ 0·012 is— (A) 22 amp. (B) 14 amp. (C) 7 amp. (D) 10 amp.

Question 569:- For rewiring the vehicle the cable size of head lamps is— (A) 44/ 0·012 (B) 28/ 0·012 (C) 14/ 0·001 (D) None

Question 570:- Which of the following has cable size 14/ 0·012? (A) Field circuit (B) Ignition circuit (C) Accessories (D) All are correct

Question 571:- For rewiring the vehicle the cable size of main battery feed circuit is— (A) 44/ 0·012 (B) 28/ 0·012 (C) 28/ 0·112 (D) 14/ 0·012

Question 572:- The frequency of flashing of light per minute in a direction (side turn) indicator is about (a) 9 (b) 90 (c) 900 (d) 9000

Question 573:- Battery is used in which of the phenomenon— (A) Heater, radios (B) Roof light, stop light (C) Head lamps, tail light (D) All are correct

Question 574:- Which of the following is the main component of a battery? (A) Battery plates (B) Separators (C) Electrolyte (D) All are correct

Question 575:- A battery usually has …… cells. (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

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Question 576:- The positive and negative plates are made of which of following? (A) Lead (B) Iron (C) Steel (D) None of these

Question 577:- For positive plates …… is pasted. (A) Lead peroxide (B) Lead antimony (C) Both of them (D) None of these

Question 578:- For negative plates …… is pasted. (A) Lead peroxide (B) Lead antimony (C) Both of them (D) None of these

Question 579:- What is placed between negative and positive plates? (A) Electrolyte (B) Battery box (C) Separators (D) None of these

Question 580:- Battery is used in which of the phenomenon— (A) Heater, radios (B) Roof light, stop light (C) Head lamps, tail light (D) All are correct

Question 581:- Which of the following is the main component of a battery? (A) Battery plates (B) Separators (C) Electrolyte (D) All are correct

Question 582:- A battery usually has …… cells. (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

Question 583:- The positive and negative plates are made of which of following? (A) Lead (B) Iron (C) Steel (D) None of these

Question 584:- For positive plates …… is pasted. (A) Lead peroxide (B) Lead antimony (C) Both of them (D) None of these

Question 585:- For negative plates …… is pasted. (A) Lead peroxide (B) Lead antimony (C) Both of them (D) None of these

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Question 586:- What is placed between negative and positive plates? (A) Electrolyte (B) Battery box (C) Separators (D) None of these

Question 587:- The frame consisting of large channels joined by a cross member at the middle is called— (A) X-frame (B) Y-frame (C) Z-frame (D) A-frame

Question 588:- What is the factor that tend to increase brake temperature? (A) Load on vehicle (B) Speed of vehicle (C) Unbalanced braking (D) All are correct

Question 589:- What is the cause of poor braking? (A) Wet brake lining (B) Burnt or worn out linings (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 590:- Which type of brakes are filled in vehicle? (A) Service brakes (B) Auxiliary brakes (C) Both (D) None

Question 591:- What is the function of brake lining? (A) To increase the co-efficient of friction (B) To prevent wearing away of the metal (C) Both are correct (D) None

Question 592:- Aluminium conducts …… heat than cast iron. (A) More (B) Less (C) Equal (D) None

Question 593:- …… section is the cross-section of the brake shoe? (A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) T Ans:

Question 594:- Removal of air bubbles present in the braking system is called— (A) Blooding (B) Bleeding (C) Tunning (D) None

Question 595:- …… mostly used for the braking surface. (A) Steel (B) Cast iron (C) Copper (D) Aluminium

Question 596:- Bleeder valve is the valve fitted on wheel cylinders for forcing air out of the braking system— (A) Correct (B) Incorrect (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 597:- Requirements of a good braking system is— (A) Brake should have less wearing parts (B) Brakes should work equally good in all weathers (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

Question 598:- Which of the following is the mechanical housed in the drive axle, which drives the outer wheel faster than the inner one while taking a turn? (A) Transmission (B) Propeller shaft (C) Differential (D) None of these

Question 599:- Which of the following is the function of differential mechanism? (A) To keep both the rear wheels at the same speed in straight travel. (B) To make outer rear wheel to rotate faster than the inner one. (C) Both of them (D) None of them

Question 600:- What is attached to the ring gear? (A) Differential gages (B) Gear box (C) Front axle (D) All are correct

Question 601:- The joint which permit power to be transmitted from one shaft to another which are not in alignment is known as— (A) Front axle (B) Universal joint (C) Gear box (D) None of these

Question 602:- The universal joints in use is— (A) Cross type universal (B) Ball or trunion universal joint (C) Constant velocity type universal joint (D) All are correct

Question 603:- A joint which does not allow variation in angular velocity occurring in each revolution is called as— (A) Constant velocity type universal joint (B) Ball and trunion universal joint (C) Cross type universal joint (D) None of these

Question 604:- What is the shape of universal joint? (A) X-shaped (B) Y-shaped (C) Z-shaped (D) L-shaped

Question 605:- Which is a cross-shaped member of a cross and yoke type universal joint? (A) Trunion (B) Spider (C) Both are correct (D) None of these

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Question 606:- The four arms of the spider which connect two yokes of the universal joint are called— (A) Trunion (B) Joint to joint (C) Socket joint (D) Flange

Question 607:- Which of the following is a flexible joint consisting of a ball within a socket, used in suspension system and valve-train rocker arms? (A) Cross-type universal joint (B) Constant velocity type (C) Ball and socket joint (D) None of the above

Question 608:- The constant velocity joint with two cross and yoke V-joints mounted back to back with a linking yoke and a centering ball is called as— (A) Final drive (B) Double carbon (C) Both (D) None of these

Question 609:- What is a type of propeller shafts? (A) Open type (B) Enclosed type (C) Torque tube (D) All are correct

Question 610:- Which of the following is a type of transmission? (A) Overdrive (B) Chrysler semi-automatic (C) Automatic transmission (D) All are correct

Question 611:- Which is a type of automatic transmission? (A) Hydromatic drive (B) Torque converter transmissions (C) Both are correct (D) None of the above

Question 612:- A three-speed gear box provides— (A) I, II, III and top gear (B) I, II and top gear (C) I, II, and III gear (D) None of the above

Question 613:- The fluid drive is one name for …… to transmit turning effort from the engine to the clutch. (A) Solid coupling (B) Plasma coupling (C) Liquid coupling (D) Gas coupling

Question 614:- Chrysler semi-automatic transmission was introduced in ….. by the chrysler corporation. (A) 1950 (B) 1841 (C) 1941 (D) 2001

Question 615:- Chrysler semi-automatic transmission is a …… speed forward and reverse geared semiautomatic transmission. (A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) One

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Question 616:- The transmission that functions purely automatically without any attention from the driver is known as— (A) Automatic transmission (B) Imaginary transmission (C) Overdrive (D) Fluid drive

Question 617:- What is the advantage of automatic transmission? (A) Simple driving control (B) Reduced fuel consumption (C) Less fatigue to driver (D) All are correct

Question 618:- The composition of the drive torus, the driven torus and the torque multiplier is— (A) Torque converter fluid coupling (B) Front planetary unit (C) Rear planetary unit (D) None of the above

Question 619:- A torque converter is a device to …… the torque while reducing the speed. (A) Decrease (B) Increase (C) Same (D) None of these

Question 620:- Which of the following is the advantage of the automatic transmission? (A) Longer life (B) Noiseless gear shifting (C) No shocks or jerky driving (D) All are correct

Question 621:- The shell mounted on the crankshaft is called— (A) Runner or driven member (B) Impeller or driving member (C) Both are correct (D) None are correct